Sample Test 2
Questions
1. What’s the primary adverse effect of thrombolytic therapy?
[ ] A. Reperfusion arrhythmias
[ ] B. Bleeding
[ ] C. Release of oxygen-free radicals
[ ] D. Hypotension
View Answer
1. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: Bleeding is the primary adverse effect of thrombolytic therapy. The nurse should establish three I.V. sites before administering therapy and should avoid giving the client I.M. injections and drawing arterial blood gases. The client should be monitored for bleeding. Reperfusion arrhythmias and hypotension may occur with thrombolytic therapy and are treated symptomatically.
Nursing process step: Evaluation
2. What’s the nursing priority when caring for a suspected schizophrenic client who’s delusional?
[ ] A. Obtain a psychiatric consult as soon as possible.
[ ] B. Assist with the medical workup because the behavior could be organic and medical causes need to be ruled out.
[ ] C. Anticipate an order for lithium (Lithobid).
[ ] D. Insist that the delusions aren’t real.
View Answer
2. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: Organic reasons for delusional behavior must be ruled out before the client is considered a psychiatric emergency. A psychiatric consult can be obtained once the client is cleared medically. Lithium isn’t the drug of choice for this client because lithium is used for bipolar disease, not schizophrenia. Insisting that the delusions aren’t real will only antagonize the client.
Nursing process step: Analysis
3. Discharge instructions to the family of a client with a concussion should include:
[ ] A. aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) 650 mg every 4 hours for complaints of mild discomfort.
[ ] B. oxycodone (Roxicodone) 30 mg every 4 hours for severe pain.
[ ] C. to return immediately if the client behaves in a way that isn’t normal for the client.
[ ] D. reassurance that neurologic symptoms will subside in 4 to 8 hours.
View Answer
3. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: A change in the client’s behavior or mental status may indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The family should be advised to return with the client immediately if his behavior becomes abnormal. Aspirin should be avoided by a client with a head injury because it may increase bleeding. The use of opioids isn’t recommended because these drugs may mask signs associated with increased ICP (increased drowsiness, confusion, and lack of coordination). Symptoms of a concussion should subside within 48 hours, and the client should be reevaluated if the symptoms exceed this length of time.
Nursing process step: Intervention
4. Which document outlines a client’s wishes regarding emergency treatment if the client can’t speak for himself?
[ ] A. Durable power of attorney for health care
[ ] B. Last will and testament
[ ] C. Advance directive
[ ] D. Instructions for care after death
View Answer
4. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: The advance directive is a legal document outlining a client’s wishes regarding health care. If the client can’t speak for himself or make decisions for himself, the durable power of attorney for health care gives another person the power to make health care decisions for him. The last will and testament and instructions for care after death aren’t read until after the client’s death.
5. In addition to dietary restrictions, discharge instructions for a client with a diagnosis of acute gout include informing him of other factors that may precipitate an acute attack. These include all of the following except:
[ ] A. excessive caloric intake.
[ ] B. moderate alcohol use.
[ ] C. stress.
[ ] D. excessive vitamin A intake.
View Answer
5. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: Precipitating factors that can cause an attack of acute gout include excessive caloric intake or overindulgence in purine-containing foods, stress, alcohol intake, and excessive vitamin A intake.
Nursing process step: Analysis
6. What’s the most common underlying cause of pediatric cardiopulmonary arrest?
[ ] A. Genetic cardiac abnormalities
[ ] B. Electrolyte disturbances
[ ] C. Hypoxemia
[ ] D. Primary cardiac arrhythmias
View Answer
6. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: Hypoxemia is the most common underlying cause of pediatric cardiopulmonary arrest. It leads to marked bradycardia and eventually asystole in the pediatric client. Ensuring optimum oxygenation is the most important intervention in this client population. The other options may lead to cardiopulmonary arrest in the pediatric client, but they’re much less common.
Nursing process step: Analysis
7. A 2-year old is evaluated in the emergency department for “pulling at his right ear.” Upon otoscopic examination, a bean is observed in his ear canal. Which method for removal is contraindicated?
[ ] A. Alligator forceps
[ ] B. Irrigation
[ ] C. Right-angled hook
[ ] D. Ear curette
View Answer
7. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: Irrigation can cause the bean to swell and occlude the ear canal. Alligator forceps, a right-angled hook, and an ear curette can all be used to remove a vegetative foreign body.
Nursing process step: Intervention
8. A gardener is brought to the emergency department by his family after spilling insecticide on himself as he filled a sprayer. He developed symptoms including headache, ataxia, and difficulty breathing. Before assessing this client, the nurse should:
[ ] A. double glove.
[ ] B. identify the type of insecticide.
[ ] C. determine how much insecticide was spilled.
[ ] D. apply respiratory protection.
View Answer
8. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: Most insecticides are carbamates or organophosphates and are highly lipid-soluble and easily absorbed through the skin. If protection isn’t worn, the insecticide may be absorbed through the skin of the nurse. The type and amount of insecticide spilled can be determined during the assessment. Respiratory protection is necessary if the insecticide is in a vapor or aerosol form.
Nursing process step: Analysis
9. Successful repair of a renal pedicle injury should be evaluated by:
[ ] A. no extravasation of contrast on cystography.
[ ] B. visualization of kidney on excretory urography.
[ ] C. patency on retrograde urethrography.
[ ] D. normal kidney-ureter-bladder (KUB) X-ray.
View Answer
9. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: Excretory urography is the test of choice for renal pedicle repair. Dye injected into the venous system should enter the kidney and provide visualization if the renovascular system is intact. Cystography is a diagnostic tool for the bladder, and retrograde urethrography is performed for a urethral injury. A KUB X-ray shows the shape, location, and size of these organs and helps to identify masses or radiopaque calculi.
Nursing process step: Evaluation
10. A 49-year-old man presents to triage with complaints of mid-sternal chest pain. His 12-lead electrocardiogram shows ST elevation in leads V2, V3, and V4. If an anterior myocardial infarction (MI) is suspected, in what leads will reciprocal ST depression be found?
[ ] A. Leads I, II, and aVF
[ ] B. Leads II, III, and aVF
[ ] C. Leads I and aVL
[ ] D. Leads II and aVL
View Answer
10. Correct answer-B.
Rationales: With an acute anterior MI, there will be ST elevation in leads V2 through V4, and ST depression in the inferior leads II, III, and aVF. The ST elevations won’t be found in the other leads.
Nursing process step: Evaluation
11. What’s a common finding in a client with an open pneumothorax?
[ ] A. A chest wound with sucking sounds
[ ] B. Increased breath sounds over the affected area
[ ] C. Resonance over the affected area
[ ] D. Hemoptysis
View Answer
11. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: Common findings in a client with an open pneumothorax are sucking sounds from the wound on inspiration. A penetrating wound to the chest presents with diminished or absent breath sounds over the affected area and hyperresonance on the affected side along with dyspnea, chest pain, and tachypnea. Hemoptysis occurs most commonly with pulmonary contusion or tracheobronchial injury.
Nursing process step: Assessment
12. A multitrauma client has just arrived in the emergency department. Nasotracheal intubation was initiated at the scene by an emergency medical service unit. Which intervention must be done first?
[ ] A. Connect the nasotracheal tube to a volume ventilator.
[ ] B. Obtain arterial blood gas measurements to determine acid-base status.
[ ] C. Verify nasotracheal tube placement.
[ ] D. Attach the client to a cardiac monitor and pulse oximeter.
View Answer
12. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: The priority for an intubated trauma client is to assess patency of airway. Tubes can become displaced during transport from the emergency medical service unit to the trauma room. To confirm nasotracheal tube placement, the nurse should first listen for air sounds over the epigastric area. If none are present, she should then listen over both lung bases during ventilation. All other interventions may be implemented after airway, breathing, and circulation have been assessed.
Nursing process step: Intervention
13. Which statement from a client discharged from the emergency department with acute otitis externa indicates an understanding of instructions?
[ ] A. “I should wear earplugs when swimming.”
[ ] B. “I should make position changes slowly.”
[ ] C. “I need to keep my home uncluttered to minimize the risk of falling.”
[ ] D. “I should contact my physician if my ear aches and the pain increases when I lie down.”
View Answer
13. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: After being diagnosed with acute otitis externa, the client should be instructed to wear earplugs to keep the infected ear dry. Acute otitis externa is an inflammatory condition of the auricle and external auditory canal usually caused by gram-negative organisms. Keeping the ear dry makes it more difficult for these organisms to grow. Because of risks associated with vertigo, a client with Ménière’s disease would be instructed to change position slowly and keep his home uncluttered. A client with otitis media would be instructed to notify the physician if ear pain increases when lying down since this may indicate that antibiotic therapy is ineffective.
Nursing process step: Evaluation
14. A treatment plan for a client in cardiogenic shock should produce which outcome?
[ ] A. Increased left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
[ ] B. Increased systemic vascular resistance
[ ] C. Decreased cardiac output
[ ] D. Decreased left ventricular end-diastolic (LVED) pressure
View Answer
14. Correct answer—D.
Rationales: The treatment plan for a client in cardiogenic shock includes administering medications that decrease preload and afterload and increase contractility. As a result of this therapy, LVED pressure as well as demands on the heart should be reduced. Vasodilators reduce total peripheral resistance and decrease LVED pressure. Catecholamines increase heart rate, heart contractility, and vasodilatation in the postcapillary sphincters and pulmonary system. All other options are clinical manifestations of cardiogenic shock.
Nursing process step: Evaluation
15. A client with a LeFort II fracture is transferred to the emergency department. The nurse looks for free-floating movement of:
[ ] A. unilateral periorbital area.
[ ] B. nose and dental arch.
[ ] C. teeth and lower maxilla.
[ ] D. all facial bones.
View Answer
15. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: A LeFort II fracture involves a pyramidal fracture that includes the central portion of the maxilla across the superior nasal area. It may also involve the orbit. This produces a free-floating nose and dental arch. Free-floating movement of the unilateral periorbital area doesn’t describe a clinical situation. However, free-floating movement of the teeth and maxilla describes a LeFort I, and free-floating movement of all the facial bones describes a LeFort III fracture.
Nursing process step: Assessment
16. What’s a true statement about epididymitis?
[ ] A. Elevation of the testes increases pain.
[ ] B. A child with epididymitis should be screened for possible molestation.
[ ] C. It isn’t necessary to examine and treat sexual partners.
[ ] D. Fertility isn’t affected in a client with epididymitis.
View Answer
16. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: It’s rare for a child to contract epididymitis, so the possibility of child molestation should be investigated. Causes of epididymitis include prostatitis, cystitis, and urethral instrumentation. Common causative organisms include Escherichia coli, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Chlamydia. Elevation of the testes sometimes relieves the pain. A client with epididymitis should be cautioned that all sexual partners should be examined and treated. Infertility can be a problem if epididymitis is untreated or partially treated because it can cause vas deferens scars or antisperm antibody production.
Nursing process step: Assessment
17. All of the following clients have an increased risk of liver injury after abdominal trauma except:
[ ] A. a 78-year-old male with a history of congestive heart failure.
[ ] B. a 25-year-old male with an injury to his left lower ribs.
[ ] C. a 20-year-old female with sickle cell anemia.
[ ] D. a 55-year-old male with cirrhosis.
View Answer
17. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: An injury to the left lower ribs would be more likely to cause a splenic injury. Heart failure, sickle cell anemia, and cirrhosis are chronic disease processes that have a direct effect on the liver, making it more susceptible to injury.
Nursing process step: Evaluation
18. What should be the treatment plan for a suicidal client who presents to the emergency department?
[ ] A. Notification of the family
[ ] B. Contracting for safety
[ ] C. Sedation
[ ] D. Involuntary commitment
View Answer
18. Correct answer-B.
Rationales: Contracting with the client for safety is the primary focus. Although family notification, sedation, and involuntary commitment may be needed, they aren’t the priority.
Nursing process step: Assessment
19. A client is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision in which he was ejected from the car into a lake. His vital signs are as follows: blood pressure, 70/50 mm Hg; heart rate, 140 beats/minute; temperature, 95° F (35° C). He’s orally intubated and currently receiving 100% oxygen through an Ambu bag. What interventions do you anticipate?
[ ] A. Stat of the computed tomography (CT) scan
[ ] B. Infusion of warmed fluid and warming blanket
[ ] C. Transfer to the intensive care unit (ICU)
[ ] D. Blood transfusion
View Answer
19. Correct answer-B.
Rationales: Because the client is both hypothermic and hypotensive, the priority treatment would focus on warming the client and fluid resuscitation. Although a CT scan may be indicated, the blood pressure must be addressed. Transfer to the ICU and blood transfusion may be needed following the initial treatment.
Nursing process step: Intervention
20. All emergency department (ED) nurses are compelled to treat homeless clients with multiple minor complaints with dignity. What directive requires the nurses to respond in this manner?
[ ] A. Personal or religious beliefs
[ ] B. Code of ethics for ED nurses
[ ] C. Clinical expertise
[ ] D. State and federal laws
View Answer
20. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: Code #1 in the code of ethics for ED nurses states that, “The emergency nurse provides services with respect for human dignity and the uniqueness of the client, unrestricted by considerations of social or economic status, personal attributes, or the nature of health problems.” Personal beliefs can’t compel the behavior of an entire profession. ED nurses may have many different personal or religious beliefs regarding human dignity, and the development of clinical expertise should coincide with a deeper understanding of ethical behavior. Clinical expertise can’t guarantee ethical behavior because ethics deals with values, actions, and choices of right and wrong. Laws are binding rules of conduct enforced by authority. In many situations, laws and ethics may overlap; however, the ethical precept of treating other human beings with dignity and law can’t mandate respect for their unique individuality.
21. A 44-year-old female is brought to the emergency department with shortness of breath and persistent chest pain for 2 hours. Vital signs include blood pressure of 126/70 mm Hg, pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, and respiratory rate of 26/minute. What is the client’s mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
[ ] A. 37 mm Hg
[ ] B. 63 mm Hg
[ ] C. 88 mm Hg
[ ] D. 107 mm Hg
View Answer
21. Correct answer-C.
Rationale: MAP = systolic blood pressure + (diastolic blood pressure × 2) ÷ 3. So, in this case: MAP = 126 + (70 × 2) ÷ 3; MAP = 126 + 140 ÷ 3; MAP = 88.
Nursing process step: Assessment
22. The release of histamine in the antigen-antibody reaction during anaphylactic shock results in:
[ ] A. vasodilation.
[ ] B. vasoconstriction.
[ ] C. increased myocardial contractility.
[ ] D. decreased vascular permeability.
View Answer
22. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: The antigen-antibody reaction in anaphylactic shock induces the release of histamine, which causes massive vasodilation, a reduction in arterial pressure by dilating the arterioles, and an increase in vascular permeability. This creates a rapid shift of fluids into the interstitial spaces, and myocardial contractility is decreased because of inadequate venous return, resulting in decreased preload.
Nursing process step: Assessment
23. A client with known bipolar disorder (manicdepressive illness) is brought to the emergency department (ED) by friends who state that he hasn’t been taking his medicine. The ED nurse should expect to find which symptoms?
[ ] A. Labile emotions, hyperactivity or hypoactivity, poor social judgment, and grandiose context to speech
[ ] B. An increase in heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure
[ ] C. Normal thought process
[ ] D. Flat or inappropriate affect
View Answer
23. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: Labile emotions, hyperactivity, hypoactivity, poor social judgment, and grandiose context to speech are classic signs of bipolar disease. Vital signs are usually normal unless other contributing factors are present. A client with bipolar disease may have impaired thinking related to rapid progression of thoughts, flight of ideas, and grandiosity. A flat or inappropriate affect is usually associated with schizophrenia.
Nursing process step: Assessment
24. Which of the following is the medication of choice for a client presenting with hypertensive crisis?
[ ] A. Nitroglycerin
[ ] B. Labetalol
[ ] C. Hydralazine
[ ] D. Nitroprusside
View Answer
24. Correct answer-D.
Rationales: Nitroprusside is the first-line choice in a hypertensive crisis because it’s a mixed arterial and venous vasodilator. This makes it more effective than the other medications.
Nursing process step: Intervention
25. Which acid-base imbalance is most likely seen in a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
[ ] A. Metabolic acidosis
[ ] B. Respiratory acidosis
[ ] C. Metabolic alkalosis
[ ] D. Respiratory alkalosis
View Answer
25. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: Carbon dioxide is an acidic compound that’s normally excreted by the respiratory system. A client with COPD presents with an elevated PaCO2, resulting in the development of respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia. Metabolic acidosis is a common finding in renal failure, dehydration, and shock. Respiratory alkalosis commonly occurs with anxiety and other states that lead to hyperventilation. Metabolic alkalosis occurs in situations with increased loss of GI fluids.
Nursing process step: Assessment
26. Which amputation isn’t favorable for successful reimplantation?
[ ] A. Multiple digits
[ ] B. Thumb
[ ] C. Pediatric extremity
[ ] D. Injuries at multiple levels on the same extremity
View Answer
26. Correct answer—D.
Rationales: Injuries at multiple levels on the same extremity make it unlikely that reimplantation will be successful. Loss of several digits seriously compromises hand function, so reimplantation should be considered. Reimplantation of the thumb should also be considered because the thumb constitutes 40% to 50% of the functional value of the hand due to its role in opposition and grasp and because this procedure has a high success rate. Reimplantation is usually successful in children because they regenerate transected nerves well and readily adapt to using a reimplanted part.
Nursing process step: Evaluation
27. Which statement about ventricular fibrillation is correct?
[ ] A. Ventricular fibrillation is less likely to respond to countershock if the client is acidotic.
[ ] B. Ventricular fibrillation requires synchronized cardioversion.
[ ] C. Ventricular fibrillation can be distinguished from asystole by auscultation.
[ ] D. Ventricular fibrillation should be treated by an initial countershock at 360 joules.
View Answer
27. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: Acidosis decreases the myocardial cells, ability to respond to the countershock. Synchronized cardioversion is inappropriate in ventricular fibrillation, which should be treated with unsynchronized defibrillation. Auscultation won’t differentiate between ventricular fibrillation and asystole. The appropriate initial shock in ventricular fibrillation is 200 joules.
Nursing process step: Assessment
28. What’s the most serious adverse effect of vasopressin I.V. therapy in the client with bleeding esophageal varices?
[ ] A. Coronary vasoconstriction
[ ] B. Abdominal cramping
[ ] C. Water intoxication
[ ] D. Tissue damage due to infiltration
View Answer
28. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: Coronary vasoconstriction, abdominal cramping, water intoxication, and tissue damage from infiltration are all adverse effects of vasopressin therapy. The most serious adverse effect, however, is coronary vasoconstriction, which can cause arrhythmias, ischemia, and decreased cardiac output.
Nursing process step: Evaluation
29. A client comes to the emergency department (ED) complaining of shortness of breath, dizziness, and chest pain after a diving trip with friends. Which condition should the ED nurse suspect?
[ ] A. Decompression sickness
[ ] B. Air embolism
[ ] C. Nitrogen narcosis
[ ] D. Spontaneous pneumothorax
View Answer
29. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: These symptoms suggest air embolism, which is caused by failure to exhale on ascent. Decompression sickness is caused by nitrogen bubbles in the bloodstream and is manifested by rash, fatigue, and dizziness. Nitrogen narcosis results when the client breathes dissolved nitrogen under pressure. Symptoms include fatigue, weakness, and decreased consciousness; it may result in death.
Nursing process step: Assessment
30. Chemotherapeutic drugs appear to damage cardiac myofibrils, leading to hypertrophy of the heart muscle and decreased function. Resulting clinical manifestations may include:
[ ] A. increased systolic blood pressure.
[ ] B. decreased diastolic blood pressure.
[ ] C. epigastric pain.
[ ] D. bradycardia.
View Answer
30. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: Epigastric pain is a GI symptom associated with liver engorgement and ascites. Cardiovascular manifestations include a decrease in systolic blood pressure with an increase in diastolic blood pressure. Tachycardia, not bradycardia, may be the first clinical manifestation of heart failure as the body attempts to compensate for a failing ventricle.
Nursing process step: Assessment
31. The client with carpal tunnel syndrome presents with all of the following symptoms except:
[ ] A. paresthesias of thumb, index finger, middle finger, and one-half the ring finger.
[ ] B. weakness.
[ ] C. worse pain at night.
[ ] D. swelling.
View Answer
31. Correct answer—D.
Rationales: Clients don’t typically present with swelling of their hands with carpal tunnel syndrome. Weakness, paresthesia, and pain at night are all classic symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome. Other symptoms include decreased range of motion, elbow and shoulder pain, and occasionally nail and skin involvement.
Nursing process step: Assessment
32. Cocaine-induced myocardial ischemia may be related to:
[ ] A. bradycardia.
[ ] B. coronary artery vasodilation.
[ ] C. increased myocardial oxygen consumption.
[ ] D. pulmonary emboli.
View Answer
32. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: Cocaine-induced myocardial ischemia has been associated with coronary artery vasoconstriction, coronary thrombosis, and increased myocardial oxygen consumption. In addition, these clients typically suffer from tachyarrhythmias.
Nursing process step: Evaluation
33. A client develops anaphylactic shock after receiving radiopaque dye. The client is currently taking atenolol (Tenormin) 100 mg by mouth daily for hypertension. Which intervention should be implemented?
[ ] A. Administer glucocorticoids.
[ ] B. Administer high doses of epinephrine and glucagon 5 to 15 mcg/minute I.V.
[ ] C. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
[ ] D. Administer high doses of inhaled bronchodilators.
View Answer
33. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: Clients receiving beta-adrenergic blockers require large, repeated doses of epinephrine to counteract the effects of the beta-adrenergic blockers. Glucagon 5 to 15 mcg/minute I.V. may be beneficial for refractory hypotension associated with beta-adrenergic blockers. All other medications should be administered per recommended doses.
Nursing process step: Intervention
34. A client’s electrocardiogram reveals ST-segment changes in leads II, III, and aVF. The emergency department nurse suspects damage to which wall of the myocardium?
[ ] A. Inferior
[ ] B. Lateral
[ ] C. Anterior
[ ] D. Apical
View Answer
34. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: Changes in leads II, III, and aVF are indicative of damage to the inferior wall of the heart. The lateral wall shows changes in leads I, II, III, aVF, V5, and V6. Anterior changes are shown in leads V1 through V4, I, and aVL. Apical damage is shown in leads II, aVF, V5, and V6.
Nursing process step: Assessment
35. What’s the strongest indication that a client may be violent?
[ ] A. A history of violence
[ ] B. Rapid, loud speech and heavy alcohol consumption
[ ] C. Clenched fists, pacing, and tense posture
[ ] D. Complaints of extreme pain from a client who has had to wait several hours
View Answer
35. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: Clenched fists, pacing, and tense posture demonstrate escalation of violent behavior. The emergency department nurse needs to recognize this behavior early so that appropriate intervention can occur. The other options may indicate the potential for violence as well, but not to the extent that clenched fists, pacing, and tense posture do.
Nursing process step: Assessment
36. Which of the following best demonstrates the criteria necessary to assess the presence of psychosis?
[ ] A. Delusions of grandeur or persecution, anxiety, depression, and sleep disturbances
[ ] B. Preoccupation with egocentric ideas, defiance of authority, and a history of drug abuse
[ ] C. Disturbed affect, bizarre thinking, illogical speech, delusions, and relational withdrawal
[ ] D. Psychomotor abnormalities, self-mutilation, anorexia, and catatonia
View Answer
36. Correct answer-C.
Rationales: Psychosis is a severe state in which a person loses the ability to interact with reality. This is evidenced by bizarre thinking, loose association of ideas, illogical speech, egocentricity, and withdrawal from relationships into an internal world of fantasies. The person may exhibit perceptual disturbances, including visual and auditory hallucinations and delusions of grandeur or persecution. Psychosis involves the loss of ego boundaries, diminished volition, and psychomotor abnormalities that demonstrate a marked decrease in reactivity to the environment. Catatonic patterns, such as stupor, posturing, unusual mannerisms, or grimacing may be present.
Nursing process step: Assessment
37. The pumping ability of the heart depends on which four factors?
[ ] A. Contractility, preload, heart rate, and afterload
[ ] B. Contractility, heart rate, cardiac output, and cardiac index
[ ] C. Heart rate, cardiac output, left ventricular hypertrophy, and pulmonary venous congestion
[ ] D. Heart rate, preload, cardiac output, and cardiac index
View Answer
37. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: The pumping ability of the heart depends on contractility (force of ventricular contraction), preload (ventricular filling and end-diastolic volume), heart rate, and afterload (pressure against which the ventricle pumps). Cardiac output and index are the result of the pumping ability of the heart.
Nursing process step: Evaluation
38. What’s an appropriate intervention for a trauma client with hypovolemic shock and a urine specific gravity of 1.050?
[ ] A. Withhold all I.V. fluids.
[ ] B. Administer a bolus of 40 mL/kg of crystalloid.
[ ] C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
[ ] D. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg I.V.
View Answer
38. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: A urine specific gravity of 1.050 is elevated and indicates decreased renal perfusion, possibly resulting in dehydration. The most appropriate intervention for this client is a bolus of crystalloid at 40 mL/kg. If urine output is less than 30 mL/hour, and adequate volume replacement hasn’t been achieved, the client in shock may need to have an indwelling urinary catheter inserted to monitor urine output. Furosemide 40 mg I.V. isn’t recommended in a client who’s already volumedepleted.
Nursing process step: Intervention
39. A 79-year-old female comes to the emergency department complaining that she feels something moving in her ear. Upon otoscopic examination, the physician observes a live cockroach in the client’s ear. Which irrigation would be most appropriate for this client?
[ ] A. Normal saline
[ ] B. Alcohol diluted with water
[ ] C. Tap water
[ ] D. Mineral oil
View Answer
39. Correct answer—D.
Rationales: Instilling a few drops of mineral oil into the ear canal will kill the insect, after which the dead insect can be removed with direct instrumentation. A cotton ball soaked in ether or 2% lidocaine will also anesthetize the insect, facilitating its removal. Normal saline and tap water are commonly used for irrigation of inorganic objects. A mixture of water and alcohol can be used for removal of organic objects because it won’t produce further swelling of the object. However, irrigation with normal saline, tap water, or alcohol diluted with water won’t readily kill the insect.
Nursing process step: Intervention
40. Ventricular shunts are used to treat which condition?
[ ] A. Pneumocephalus
[ ] B. Encephalopathy
[ ] C. Subdural empyema
[ ] D. Hydrocephalus
View Answer
40. Correct answer—D.
Rationales: Hydrocephalus is treated with ventricular shunts, which are surgically implanted to augment drainage of cerebrospinal fluid from the brain. Pneumocephalus is treated by evacuation of air through the use of subarachnoid screws. Encephalopathy is treated with drugs: anticonvulsants, steroids, and antibiotics. A subdural empyema is a collection of material between the dura and arachnoid layers and is treated with antimicrobial therapy and surgical drainage.
Nursing process step: Analysis
41. Which symptom is not related to cardiac tamponade?
[ ] A. Hypotension
[ ] B. Tracheal deviation
[ ] C. Muffled heart tones
[ ] D. Distended neck veins
View Answer
41. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: Classic signs of cardiac tamponade include three main symptoms known as Beck’s triad. They include hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and distended neck veins. Tracheal deviation is a late sign of a tension pneumothorax.
Nursing process step: Analysis
42. Herpes zoster is an inflammatory condition with localized burning and shearing pain. Which term refers to herpes zoster lesions?
[ ] A. Papule
[ ] B. Vesicle
[ ] C. Bulla
[ ] D. Pustule
View Answer
42. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: Herpes zoster (shingles) is characterized by clusters of vesicles that form in a line along nerve pathways. Vesicles are fluid-filled lesions less than 1 cm in size. The fluid is clear. Papules are solid masses of cellular growth usually less than 5 mm in size. Bulla are fluidfilled lesions larger than 1 cm. Pustules are fluid-filled lesions, but unlike a vesicle, the fluid inside is yellowish.
Nursing process step: Assessment
43. A client in sickle-cell crisis is brought to the emergency department in an ambulance. The nurse anticipates all of the following to be collaborative measures utilized to treat the client initially except:
[ ] A. frequent doses of opioid analgesics.
[ ] B. oxygen via nasal cannula.
[ ] C. oral or I.V. fluid and electrolyte administration.
[ ] D. transfusion therapy.
View Answer
43. Correct answer—D.
Rationales: Blood transfusions should be used judiciously to treat a crisis. They have little or no role in treatment between crises. Large doses of continuous opioid analgesics may be needed and are the mainstay of pain management during the acute phase. Oxygen is administered to treat hypoxia and control sickling. Fluids and electrolytes are given to reduce blood viscosity and maintain renal function.
Nursing process step: Intervention
44. The emergency nurse notes an ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF during assessment of a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
[ ] A. Circumflex
[ ] B. Left anterior descending
[ ] C. Left coronary artery
[ ] D. Right coronary artery
View Answer
44. Correct answer-D.
Rationales: The right coronary artery supplies the right ventricle and right atrium. The inferior leads II, III, and aVF look at the right side of the heart on the 12-lead ECG. Therefore, an ST-segment elevation observed in leads II, III, and aVF would indicate an occlusion in the right coronary artery.
Nursing process step: Assessment
45. What’s a contraindication for lumbar puncture?
[ ] A. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)
[ ] B. Allergy to local anesthetic (1% lidocaine)
[ ] C. Suspected blood in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
[ ] D. Presence of spinal cord lesion
View Answer
45. Correct answer—D.
Rationales: Increased ICP is a contraindication to performing a lumbar puncture, unless the benefits outweigh the risks. Performing a lumbar puncture on a client with increased ICP may result in brain stem compression or herniation. Allergy to a local anesthetic, blood in the CSF, and the presence of a spinal cord lesion aren’t contraindications for lumbar puncture.
Nursing process step: Assessment
46. A client with a severe posterior epistaxis of short duration is admitted to the emergency department. The client is pale, weak, slightly dizzy, and complains of a headache. Vital signs are blood pressure, 200/110 mm Hg; pulse, 104 beats/minute; respirations, 28 breaths/minute; and temperature, 98° F (36.7° C). Which laboratory test result is possible?
[ ] A. Markedly decreased hemoglobin
[ ] B. Decreased platelet count
[ ] C. Diminished prothrombin time
[ ] D. Increased creatinine level
View Answer
46. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: A decreased platelet count may be present if a blood dyscrasia is the cause of bleeding after a bleeding episode. Decreased hemoglobin may not be immediately apparent because of hemoconcentration. Hence, more time or serial hemoglobin determinations may be necessary to detect a fall in hemoglobin readings. Prothrombin times may be elevated in bleeding clients because of bleeding disorders or anticoagulant therapy. Creatinine is a test of kidney function.
Nursing process step: Assessment
47. The emergency department nurse knows that the most important principle in client education is:
[ ] A. providing the most up-to-date information available.
[ ] B. alleviating the client’s guilt associated with not knowing appropriate self-care.
[ ] C. determining client readiness to learn new information.
[ ] D. building on previous information.
View Answer
47. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: Unless the client is ready to accept new information, building on previous knowledge is useless. The readiness factor is critical to acceptance and integration of new information. Client guilt can’t be alleviated until the client understands the intricacies of the condition and the physiologic response to the disease.
Nursing process step: Assessment
48. A client presents with an ankle injury. The ankle is moderately swollen, ecchymotic, and painful to palpation over the lateral and medial malleolus. What’s the nursing priority for this client?
[ ] A. Applying ice and elevating the ankle
[ ] B. Teaching the principles of crutch walking
[ ] C. Getting an order for pain medication
[ ] D. Applying a traction splint with 15 lb of traction
View Answer
48. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: Elevating the extremity and applying ice slow the swelling process and help relieve pain. Teaching the client how to walk with crutches isn’t appropriate at this time because the pain distracts the client. If elevating the ankle and applying ice don’t decrease the pain, then an order for medication is appropriate. A traction splint is contraindicated for this client; the traction splint is indicated for fractures of the femur and proximal tibia only.
Nursing process step: Analysis
49. Triage has been effective when the client presenting with heart failure is classified as:
[ ] A. urgent.
[ ] B. acute.
[ ] C. nonacute.
[ ] D. referable.
View Answer
49. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: A client presenting with heart failure is classified as acute, which means that the client must be seen within 30 to 60 minutes of arrival at the emergency department. A client classified as urgent must be seen immediately. A nonacute client can wait in turn to be seen, and a referable client can be seen at the physician’s discretion and may be referred to another physician at another time.
Nursing process step: Evaluation
50. What’s the most effective treatment of intrapulmonary shunt in the client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
[ ] A. Administer a diuretic.
[ ] B. Increase the fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2).
[ ] C. Implement positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).
[ ] D. Decrease fluid intake.
View Answer
50. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: The two causes of intrapulmonary shunt seen in the client with ARDS are pulmonary edema and atelectasis. Common treatments for hydrostatic pulmonary edema include diuretics, inotropes, and decreased fluid intake. They aren’t effective treatments for the early stages of ARDS. A key finding in ARDS is refractory hypoxemia that isn’t improved by increasing the FIO2. In fact, FIO2 levels greater than 60% for prolonged periods result in atelectasis, worsening ARDS, and hypoxemia. Adding low levels of PEEP (5 to 10 cm H2O) will assist in reopening the alveoli and improving tissue oxygenation.
Nursing process step: Intervention
51. Which type of learning is demonstrated when the nurse teaches a parent to change the sterile dressing on a child’s arm?
[ ] A. Cognitive
[ ] B. Affective
[ ] C. Social
[ ] D. Psychomotor
View Answer
51. Correct answer—D.
Rationales: Psychomotor learning requires the coordination of the brain and extremities to complete a task. Cognitive learning is a mental process that doesn’t involve the extremities. Affective learning involves feelings and attitudes rather than cognitive or psychomotor skills. Social isn’t a type of learning.
Nursing process step: Analysis
52. When educating the client with tendinitis or bursitis, discharge instructions should include which of the following?
[ ] A. Take aspirin for severe pain or discomfort.
[ ] B. Take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) on an empty stomach.
[ ] C. Discontinue NSAIDs and call your physician if you have bright red, bloody, or dark, tarry stools.
[ ] D. Discontinue NSAIDs if you don’t obtain relief from pain or inflammation in 48 hours.
View Answer
52. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: All NSAIDs should be taken with food or on a full stomach. The client shouldn’t take NSAIDs on an empty stomach because of the possibility of gastritis or GI bleeding. Melena (dark, tarry stools) and hematochezia (bloody stools) are both symptoms of upper and lower GI bleeding. The use of NSAIDs with aspirin should be avoided. Also, it may take 1 to 2 weeks for full anti-inflammatory effects to take place.
Nursing process step: Intervention
53. When preparing to irrigate a client’s right ear, in which direction should the nurse direct the irrigation stream?
[ ] A. 1 o’clock position
[ ] B. 5 o’clock position
[ ] C. 9 o’clock position
[ ] D. 11 o’clock position
View Answer
53. Correct answer-D.
Rationales: When preparing to irrigate a client’s right ear, the irrigation stream should be pointed toward the posterior superior aspect of the canal and not directly at the tympanic membrane. To irrigate the right ear, this would be toward the 11 o’clock position.
Nursing process step: Intervention
54. Which of the following diagnoses is suspected in a client who presents with complaints of vertigo, tinnitus, ear fullness, and a fluctuation of hearing ability?
[ ] A. Labyrinthitis
[ ] B. Otitis media
[ ] C. Ménière’s disease
[ ] D. Disequilibrium syndrome
View Answer
54. Correct answer-C.
Rationales: Ménière’s disease is characterized by attacks of vertigo, tinnitus, a feeling of fullness in the ear, and a fluctuation of hearing ability. Labyrinthitis doesn’t usually cause a feeling of ear fullness. Otitis media doesn’t usually cause vertigo. Disequilibrium syndrome is characterized by headache and muscle cramps.
Nursing process step: Assessment
55. What’s a symptom of radial head dislocation (nursemaid’s elbow) in a pediatric client?
[ ] A. Ligamentous instability
[ ] B. Excessive swelling
[ ] C. Refusal to use arm
[ ] D. Loss of arm length
View Answer
55. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: In a pediatric client, one of the hallmark signs of radial head dislocation is the client’s refusal to use the affected arm. Other symptoms include limited supination and pain. No deformity may be obvious with this injury. Instability of the ligaments is associated with dislocations of the knee and doesn’t frequently occur. Dislocations of the patella commonly present with excessive swelling in adults. Elbow dislocations present with a loss of arm length.
Nursing process step: Assessment
56. A common metabolic oncologic emergency is hypercalcemia, when the total serum calcium concentration is greater than 10 mg/dL. Management for the client with hypercalcemia includes:
[ ] A. continuous cardiac monitoring.
[ ] B. maintaining slow I.V. rate.
[ ] C. I.V. mannitol.
[ ] D. I.V. calcitrol.
View Answer
56. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: Severe hypercalcemia is a medical emergency. Continuous cardiac monitoring is necessary and emergency equipment should be readily available. Initial treatment includes vigorous hydration, possibly several hundred milliliters per hour for several hours. I.V. furosemide, not mannitol, may be given to promote diuresis. Calcitrol is a vitamin D analogue used to stimulate calcium absorption in the presence of hypocalcemia.
Nursing process step: Intervention
57. Which intervention would be appropriate for a client who suffers a seizure after receiving a lidocaine bolus and a lidocaine infusion?
[ ] A. Discontinue the lidocaine infusion, monitor the client closely, and notify the physician immediately.
[ ] B. Continue the lidocaine infusion, but obtain a specimen for repeat serum cardiac enzyme analysis.
[ ] C. Administer diuretics to decrease myocardial work.
[ ] D. Administer digoxin to help augment cardiac output.
View Answer
57. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: A seizure immediately after a lidocaine bolus is administered may indicate lidocaine toxicity and toorapid administration of the drug. The infusion should be stopped and the client monitored while the physician is notified of this event. Neither diuretics nor digoxin is indicated in the immediate response to the seizure.
Nursing process step: Intervention
58. Upper GI bleeding most commonly occurs as a result of:
[ ] A. neoplasms, gastritis, and duodenal ulcers.
[ ] B. Mallory-Weiss tears, peptic ulcers, and vascular anomalies.
[ ] C. peptic ulcers, acute mucosal lesions, and esophageal varices.
[ ] D. esophagitis, gastric ulcers, and hematologic disorders.
View Answer
58. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: Peptic ulcers, acute mucosal lesions (resulting from gastritis, esophagitis, or Mallory-Weiss tears), and esophageal or gastric varices are the most common causes of upper GI bleeding. Upper GI bleeding is rarely caused by neoplasms, hematologic disorders, or vascular anomalies.
Nursing process step: Assessment
59. A repeat clean-catch urine specimen (or a catheterized specimen) may need to be collected if urinalysis shows the presence of:
[ ] A. bacteria.
[ ] B. increased epithelial cells.
[ ] C. increased white blood cells (WBCs).
[ ] D. pus.
View Answer
59. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: The presence of an increased number of epithelial cells, especially when they exceed the number of WBCs, is indicative of a contaminated specimen. Proper cleaning and retrieval of the specimen may not have taken place. The presence of bacteria, WBCs, and pus suggests pyelonephritis or a urinary tract infection.
Nursing process step: Evaluation
60. Dietary restrictions the nurse will review at discharge with the client with a diagnosis of acute gout include avoiding or reducing the intake of:
[ ] A. dairy products.
[ ] B. whole grains.
[ ] C. red meat.
[ ] D. citrus fruits.
View Answer
60. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: The client with gout should avoid highpurine foods, such as anchovies, liver, sardines, most meat, and alcoholic beverages. Dairy products, whole grains, and citrus fruits have low-purine content and won’t precipitate an attack of gout.
Nursing process step: Analysis
61. What’s the earliest indicator of a change in a client’s neurologic status?
[ ] A. Pupillary reaction
[ ] B. Motor response
[ ] C. Capillary refill
[ ] D. Level of consciousness (LOC)
View Answer
61. Correct answer—D.
Rationales: The earliest indicator of a change in neurologic status is the LOC. A client who exhibits altered mental status or decreased LOC should be reevaluated by a nurse and a physician. A change in the reaction or shape of pupils is a late indicator of a neurologic problem. Motor response appears as a delayed sign of neurologic status changes. Capillary refill is an indicator of circulatory status.
Nursing process step: Assessment
62. A 14-month-old child with a sudden onset of colicky abdominal pain and vomiting is brought to the emergency department by his mother. His mother is unable to console him. A diagnosis of intussusception is suspected based on which physical finding?
[ ] A. Palpable olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen
[ ] B. Tenderness over McBurney’s point
[ ] C. Cullen’s sign
[ ] D. Palpable sausage-shaped mass in the upper abdomen
View Answer
62. Correct answer—D.
Rationales: Intussusception occurs most often in infants and toddlers aged 3 months to 2 years. They may present with a triad of crampy abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody (currant jelly) stools. A sausage-shaped mass may be palpable in the right upper quadrant. Right lower quadrant tenderness at McBurney’s point is associated with appendicitis. Cullen’s sign, periumbilical ecchymosis, is consistent with a traumatic injury causing peritoneal bleeding. An olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen is associated with pyloric stenosis, a narrowing of the outflow tract of the stomach.
Nursing process step: Assessment
63. Which finding indicates worsening pulmonary function in a client with flail chest?
[ ] A. Accessory muscle use
[ ] B. Increased pain with movement
[ ] C. Increased blood pressure
[ ] D. Shallow respirations
View Answer
63. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: The use of accessory muscles indicates worsening respiratory function. The client also has increased pain when moving. Increased pain leads to increased blood pressure and a tendency to breath shallowly. For these reasons, it’s important to provide adequate pain medication to decrease the complications of immobility.
Nursing process step: Evaluation
64. Which drug should be administered to a client who has taken an overdose of fentanyl (Sublimaze)?
[ ] A. Physostigmine
[ ] B. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
[ ] C. Atropine
[ ] D. Naloxone
View Answer
64. Correct answer—D.
Rationales: Fentanyl is an opioid, and the antidote for opioids is naloxone. Physostigmine is the antidote for anticholinergics except cyclic antidepressants. Flumazenil is the antidote for benzodiazepines, and atropine is the antidote for organophosphates.
Nursing process step: Intervention
65. About 16 hours after a fall, a client is transferred to the emergency department (ED) from a nursing home. The fall resulted in a comminuted fracture of the left hip. About 1 hour after arrival in the ED, the client begins to complain of chills and difficulty breathing. On auscultation of the client’s chest, the ED nurse notes petechiae over the client’s anterior chest and neck. What’s the likely cause of the client’s symptoms?
[ ] A. Compartment syndrome
[ ] B. Pulmonary embolus
[ ] C. Fat embolus
[ ] D. Myocardial infarction (MI)
View Answer
65. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: A fat embolism occurs after a bone fracture or surgical manipulation of bone. A fat embolus is a small fat globule that has been displaced into the blood. The origin, although largely unknown, is believed to be either from the fracture site or from altered lipid solubility brought on by the stress of the traumatic event. The fat globules can occlude blood vessels in the brain, lungs, heart, and other organs. Symptoms include a recent fracture or bone surgery, dyspnea, sudden onset of substernal chest pain, hemoptysis, cough, crackles, altered mental status, fever, and petechiae to the buccal membranes, conjunctiva, chest, neck, shoulders, or axillary folds. Because these symptoms closely mimic other syndromes, such as pulmonary embolus and MI, careful attention must be given to the circumstances surrounding the onset of symptoms and to the client’s medical history.
Nursing process step: Analysis
66. A 4-year-old child presents with abrupt onset of high fever, stridor, drooling, tachypnea, and severe throat pain. What’s the most likely diagnosis?
[ ] A. Epiglottiditis
[ ] B. Retropharyngeal abscess
[ ] C. Bacterial tracheitis
[ ] D. Viral croup syndrome
View Answer
66. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: A child with epiglottitis has a sudden high fever, marked drooling, stridor, and severe sore throat. A child with retropharyngeal abscess has abrupt onset of high fever, stridor, drooling, severe sore throat, hyperextension of the head, and stiff neck. In bacterial tracheitis, the fever is mild initially, followed by an acute increase; the child will also have a barking cough. Bacterial tracheitis doesn’t cause drooling, and sore throat, if present at all, will be minimal. Viral croup syndrome causes a variable temperature (100° to 104° F [37.8° to 40° C]), barking cough, and mild (if any) sore throat; it doesn’t cause drooling.
Nursing process step: Analysis
67. A 5-year-old client with a pea in his ear is admitted to the emergency department. What does the nurse need to remove the pea?
[ ] A. Alligator forceps
[ ] B. 30-mL syringe
[ ] C. Lidocaine
[ ] D. Triethanolamine polypeptide oleate-condensate
View Answer
67. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: Alligator forceps are used to remove vegetable or other foreign bodies from the ear. The nurse also needs a good light source, large ear speculums, an ear curette, and ear suction. If the foreign body isn’t a vegetable, a 30-mL syringe filled with water may be used to irrigate the ear—however, water shouldn’t be used to remove vegetables because it causes them to swell, making removal more difficult. Lidocaine is useful in removing live bugs. Cerumenex is useful in removing earwax buildup only.
Nursing process step: Intervention
68. A young man comes to the emergency department complaining of a recurring tension headache. Which nursing intervention reflects an understanding of the causes of tension headaches?
[ ] A. Placing a warm towel on the client’s neck
[ ] B. Performing rigorous, active range-of-motion (ROM) to the client’s neck and jaw
[ ] C. Applying pressure over the contracted muscles
[ ] D. Administering ergotamine
View Answer
68. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: Muscular contraction or tension headache is an example of a nonvascular headache. Skeletal muscle contraction in the head or neck produces steady, pulsatile pain and limited motion of the head, neck, and jaw. Rigorous ROM causes increased pain. Pressure over contracted muscles worsens the pain, as do vasoconstrictor drugs such as ergotamine. A warm towel will induce vasodilatation and muscle relaxation.
Nursing process step: Intervention
69. On arrival in the emergency department, a multitrauma client had a hematocrit (HCT) of 42%. After 1 L of fluid, the HCT was 35%; after 2 L, the HCT is 29.5%. The nurse notices that the urinary catheter drainage is now hematuric and the client is bleeding from the nasogastric and endotracheal tube sites. The physician makes a diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Based on this diagnosis, the nurse can expect to:
[ ] A. administer heparin and fresh frozen plasma.
[ ] B. administer streptokinase and packed red blood cells.
[ ] C. administer tissue plasminogen activator (tPa) and platelets.
[ ] D. administer urokinase and whole blood.
View Answer
69. Correct answer—A.
Rationales: DIC is a condition of excessive coagulation that eventually leads to inadequate homeostasis. The activation of the coagulation system leads to the formation of fibrin that binds with blood to form a clot. In DIC, the clots are deposited in the microvasculature of various organs. Excessive bleeding in DIC results from the consumption of all clotting factors. Fibrin degradation products further aggravate this situation because they act as powerful anticoagulants. Heparin is most effective when administered soon after recognition of symptoms. Fresh frozen plasma and cryoprecipitate are administered to replace clotting factors. Although the client is at risk for thrombus and emboli, thrombolytic agents, such as urokinase, streptokinase, and tPa, aren’t used because they can cause excessive bleeding.
Nursing process step: Intervention
70. A 36-year-old male client presents to triage after being hit in the right eye by an object. The client is complaining of diplopia and distortion in his visual fields. On examination, his visual acuity is decreased and there’s no response to light. Which diagnosis is anticipated?
[ ] A. Globe rupture
[ ] B. Lens displacement
[ ] C. Hyphema
[ ] D. Retinal detachment
View Answer
70. Correct answer-B.
Rationales: Lens displacement usually occurs as a result of direct trauma to the globe. Fibers around the iris break and the lens subluxes, causing diplopia, distortion, decreased visual acuity, and no response to light. A globe rupture would cause severe pain and a complete loss of vision. Hyphema results in pain in the affected eye and blurred vision. A retinal detachment usually produces flashing and visible floaters in the eye.
Nursing process step: Assessment
71. Neutropenia is defined as a neutrophil count of less than 1,000/mm3. Disorders associated with neutropenia include all of the following except:
[ ] A. hepatitis.
[ ] B. influenza
[ ] C. diverticulitis.
[ ] D. measles.
View Answer
71. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: Inflammatory processes, such as diverticulitis, cause an increase in neutrophils, or neutrophilia. Many viral diseases, such as hepatitis, influenza, and measles, as reflected in the other options, can cause a decreased neutrophil count, or neutropenia.
Nursing process step: Analysis
72. During examination of the mouth of a client with facial trauma, the emergency nurse notes ecchymosis on the floor of the mouth. Which of the following diagnoses is consistent with this finding?
[ ] A. Zygotic fracture
[ ] B. LeFort fracture
[ ] C. Mandibular fracture
[ ] D. Maxillary fracture
View Answer
72. Correct answer-C.
Rationales: Signs of a mandibular fracture include malocclusion, ecchymosis of the floor of the mouth, and sublingual edema. A zygotic, LeFort, or maxillary fracture wouldn’t cause ecchymosis of the floor of the mouth.
Nursing process step: Assessment
73. Which injury should result in radiographic assessment by arteriography?
[ ] A. An injury to a long bone
[ ] B. A penetrating injury with the possibility of a fracture
[ ] C. An open fracture
[ ] D. An injury with suspected vascular damage
View Answer
73. Correct answer—D.
Rationales: Arteriography is helpful if diminished or absent pulses indicate that there may be vascular damage. It isn’t clinically indicated for long bone injuries if the vascular status is unaffected. Arteriography isn’t usually indicated in open injuries (including penetrating injury) unless the wound is near major vascular structures or the wounding force was high-velocity.
Nursing process step: Assessment
74. What’s the treatment of choice for a client with an esophageal rupture?
[ ] A. Immediate intubation
[ ] B. Insertion of a nasogastric (NG) tube
[ ] C. Antibiotic administration
[ ] D. Chest tube insertion
View Answer
74. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: The risk for infection is high in this client; therefore, administration of antibiotics is a priority. If other severe injuries are present and they compromise respiratory function, immediate intubation or chest tube insertion may be necessary. Insertion of an NG tube is contraindicated.
Nursing process step: Intervention
75. The client receiving I.V. immune globulin therapy suddenly develops chest tightness, dyspnea, back pain, and chills. Which intervention is a priority for this client?
[ ] A. Assess vital signs.
[ ] B. Stop the infusion.
[ ] C. Administer subcutaneous epinephrine 0.1 mg/kg.
[ ] D. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
View Answer
75. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: This client is having a hemolytic reaction to transfusion therapy. Therefore, the transfusion should be stopped immediately. The nurse should then initiate infusion of normal saline solution at a keep-vein-open rate. After contacting a physician, the nurse should be prepared to administer antihistamines and epinephrine. The client’s vital signs should be reassessed frequently, as indicated by facility policy.
Nursing process step: Intervention
76. What’s the purpose of corticosteroids in a client diagnosed with a brain tumor?
[ ] A. To control absence seizures
[ ] B. To provide symptomatic relief of agitation
[ ] C. To reduce cerebral edema
[ ] D. To reduce pain
View Answer
76. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: Corticosteroids reduce inflammation and cerebral edema and help prevent increased intracranial pressure. Anticonvulsants are used to control absence seizures. Antipsychotics and antianxiety drugs may be used sparingly to control agitation. Preferably, nonopioids are used to relieve pain. Opioids may make it difficult to assess the client’s level of consciousness.
Nursing process step: Intervention
77. Abrupt withdrawal of corticosteroid therapy puts a client at risk for:
[ ] A. glaucoma.
[ ] B. adrenal crisis.
[ ] C. psychiatric disturbances.
[ ] D. tardive dyskinesia.
View Answer
77. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: Adrenal crisis may occur as the result of sudden withdrawal from corticosteroid therapy. Symptoms of adrenal crisis include fever, myalgia, arthralgia, and malaise. An increased risk of developing glaucoma and subcapsular cataracts can be the result of prolonged use of corticosteroids. Psychiatric disturbances may present as an adverse effect during use, and they may include euphoria, insomnia, mood swings, and extreme depression. Tardive dyskinesia consists of irreversible, involuntary movements that may develop in people being treated with neuroleptics such as chlorpromazine.
Nursing process step: Analysis
78. An elderly client is brought to the emergency department by his neighbor, who states that he found the client in his unheated home. The outdoor temperature is 27° F (-2.8° C). The client is lethargic and confused. Vital signs are blood pressure, 90/46 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/minute; respirations, 14 breaths/minute; and temperature, 89.6° F (32° C). Which statement about treatment of clients with severe hypothermia is true?
[ ] A. The application of warm blankets is sufficient to prevent further heat loss.
[ ] B. Active and rapid external warming is the treatment of choice for this client.
[ ] C. Complications of rewarming include metabolic acidosis and cardiac arrhythmias.
[ ] D. After the temperature returns to normal, the client may be safely discharged.
View Answer
78. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: Complications of rewarming include metabolic acidosis, cardiac arrhythmias, pneumonia, renal failure, pancreatitis, sepsis, and acute respiratory distress syndrome. The application of warm blankets isn’t sufficient with such severe hypothermia. More active rewarming (peritoneal dialysis, warmed fluids, heated humidified oxygen, extracorporeal blood rewarming) may be needed. Rapid rewarming isn’t advised because such a client is vulnerable to cardiac arrhythmias. External rewarming causes peripheral vasodilation. This action may divert blood flow to the skin and shunt cooled blood to the central circulation, thereby causing a brief drop in core temperature. It may also predispose the client to hypovolemia and ventricular fibrillation. Debilitated and elderly clients with core temperatures under 95° F (35° C) should be hospitalized.
Nursing process step: Intervention
79. Which term is applied to the lowest level of electrical energy required to initiate consistent capture with a pacemaker?
[ ] A. Underdrive pacing
[ ] B. Pacing threshold
[ ] C. Sensing threshold
[ ] D. Demand pacing
View Answer
79. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: The lowest level of electrical energy required to initiate consistent capture with a pacemaker is referred to as pacing threshold. It’s determined by achieving pacing at a high level and then gradually decreasing the energy level until capture ceases. For successful capture, the energy is then set a few milliamperes above the threshold. Underdrive pacing is used to interrupt tachyarrhythmias. Demand pacers fire only when the heart rate drops below a set rate.
Nursing process step: Evaluation
80. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) can be identified by which laboratory value?
[ ] A. Blood glucose level between 300 and 500 mg/dL
[ ] B. Plasma osmolality greater than 350 mOsm/kg
[ ] C. Normal blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
[ ] D. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values of pH 7.12; PaO2, 94 mm Hg; PaCO2, 38 mm Hg; and HCO3–, 18 mEq/L.
View Answer
80. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: Hyperosmolality is the result of accompanying hyperglycemia and hypernatremia. Hyperosmolality causes insulin levels to be reduced, preventing the movement of glucose into the cells and allowing glucose to accumulate in the plasma. HHNS is characterized by extremely elevated blood glucose levels, which range from 600 mg/dL to 2,800 mg/dL. The BUN level is normally elevated from severe dehydration. Fluid volume deficit is more severe than in diabetic ketoacidosis—up to 12 L of fluid must be replaced. Mild metabolic acidosis is reflected in ABG results from poor perfusion and anaerobic metabolism.
Nursing process step: Assessment
81. Which type of injury is characterized by a pulling or stressing of a muscle or tendon beyond normal limits, resulting in damage to the fibers without bleeding?
[ ] A. Sprain
[ ] B. Abrasion
[ ] C. Strain
[ ] D. Contusion
View Answer
81. Correct answer—C.
Rationales: A sprain is the tearing of ligaments that results in inflammation and ecchymotic discoloration. An abrasion is a partial-thickness scraping away of the skin. A contusion is a closed wound in which ruptured blood vessels have hemorrhaged into the surrounding tissue and are self-contained.
Nursing process step: Assessment
82. After a motor vehicle accident, a client arrives in the emergency department complaining of dyspnea and sharp shoulder pain. Objective data reveal decreased breath sounds on the left, heart sounds shifted to the right, and bowel sounds in the middle of the chest. What’s the most likely diagnosis?
[ ] A. Hemothorax
[ ] B. Ruptured diaphragm
[ ] C. Aortic dissection
[ ] D. Tracheobronchial disruption
View Answer
82. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: The key diagnostic finding suggesting a ruptured diaphragm is the presence of bowel sounds in the middle of the chest. The left side of the diaphragm is more likely to be injured than the right side because it isn’t as well protected. The abdominal contents herniate into the chest, causing compression of the lungs and great vessels. Hemothorax would produce diminished breath sounds but not shoulder pain or bowel sounds in the chest. Aortic dissection may cause a shift of heart sounds; however, the client decompensates quickly. A tracheobronchial disruption produces signs consistent with pneumothorax.
Nursing process step: Assessment
83. Which statement indicates that the client with hypercalcemia has a good understanding of his condition?
[ ] A. “Exercise will help release calcium from my bones.”
[ ] B. “Decreasing my intake of milk will prevent excessive intake of calcium.”
[ ] C. “By decreasing my fluid intake to 3 L a day, I will eliminate more calcium from my system.”
[ ] D. “My kidneys don’t play a role in balancing calcium in my body.”
View Answer
83. Correct answer—B.
Rationales: Increased fluid intake facilitates increased kidney excretion of calcium. Immobility, especially for extended periods, rather than exercise, causes calcium to leave the bones and become concentrated in the extracellular fluid. From there, it passes through the kidneys and precipitates to form calculi. Milk is high in calcium and should be restricted in a client with hypercalcemia.
Nursing process step: Evaluation
84. After ingesting a bottle of aspirin in a suicide attempt, a client with severe salicylate poisoning has been admitted to the emergency department. The nurse should prepare to add which medication to the client’s I.V. fluids?
[ ] A. Calcium gluconate
[ ] B. Folic acid
[ ] C. Sodium bicarbonate
[ ] D. Magnesium
View Answer
84. Correct answer—C.