Respiratory Emergencies



Respiratory Emergencies







1. An unrestrained passenger is thrown 20′ (6 m) from a car that hit an embankment. On admittance to the emergency department, the client is conscious; his vital signs are blood pressure, 90/60 mm Hg; pulse, 130 beats/minute with weak radial pulses; and respirations, 26 breaths/minute and shallow. Capillary refill is delayed. The lungs are clear bilaterally with diminished breath sounds on the right. Paradoxical chest movement is noted on the right side. Arterial blood gas analysis shows increased pH, decreased PaCO2, and diminished PaO2. A chest X-ray shows a right pneumothorax and multiple rib fractures on the right (4th to 7th). The client’s skin is pale and cool, and he’s confused and restless. What’s the most likely diagnosis for this client?


[ ] A. Tension pneumothorax

[ ] B. Flail chest

[ ] C. Ruptured diaphragm

[ ] D. Massive hemothorax

View Answer

Correct answer—B. Rationales: The client’s multiple rib fractures caused a flail chest. Signs include:



  • ♦ bruised skin.


  • ♦ extreme pain.


  • ♦ paradoxical chest movements.


  • ♦ rapid and shallow respirations.


  • ♦ tachycardia.


  • ♦ hypotension.


  • ♦ respiratory acidosis.


  • ♦ cyanosis.

Flail chest can also cause tension pneumothorax, a condition in which air enters the chest but can’t be ejected during exhalation. Classic signs are tracheal deviation (away from the affected side), cyanosis, severe dyspnea, absent breath sounds on the affected side, distended jugular veins, and shock. The client with a ruptured diaphragm presents with hyperresonance on percussion, hypotension, dyspnea, dysphagia, shifted heart sounds, and bowel sounds in the lower to middle chest. A client with massive hemothorax shows signs of shock (tachycardia, hypotension), dullness on percussion on the injured side, decreased breath sounds on the injured side, respiratory distress and, possibly, mediastinal shift.

Nursing process step: Assessment



2. What’s the definition of flail chest?


[ ] A. An unstable segment of the chest wall that moves paradoxically with respirations

[ ] B. A compressed rib cage with open chest wound

[ ] C. A fracture of two adjacent ribs, bilaterally

[ ] D. A fracture of two or more ribs in two or more places

View Answer

Correct answer—D. Rationales: Flail chest is a fracture of two or more ribs in two or more places, resulting in a free-floating segment of the chest wall. Paradoxical chest movement is commonly a sign of flail chest; however, until the chest muscles relax or pain relief is achieved, para-doxical movements are unlikely to be seen. Flail chest is usually a closed injury. Bilateral injury isn’t required in flail chest. If bilateral injury is present, the risk of mortality increases drastically.

Nursing process step: Assessment



3. Which of the following assessment findings

wouldn’t indicate a flail chest?


[ ] A. Paradoxical movement of the chest wall

[ ] B. Sucking chest wound

[ ] C. Respiratory distress

[ ] D. Pulmonary contusion

View Answer

Correct answer—B. Rationales: A sucking chest wound is indicative of an open pneumothorax. All other findings are associated with flail chest.

Nursing process step: Assessment




4. What’s the most likely laboratory finding in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?


[ ] A. Elevated carboxyhemoglobin level

[ ] B. Decreased PaO2

[ ] C. Elevated PaCO2

[ ] D. Decreased HCO3-

View Answer

Correct answer—B. Rationales: Hypoxemia is a universal finding in ARDS. The PaCO2 is low early in the disease because of hyperventilation, and it rises later in the disease because of fatigue and worsening clinical status. The bicarbonate level may be low in ARDS and is related to reduced tissue oxygenation. Reduced oxygenation leads to anaerobic metabolism and accumulating lactate. HCO3˜ in the serum combines with the lactate, reducing circulating HCO3– levels. The carboxyhemoglobin level is increased in a client with an inhalation injury, which commonly progresses to ARDS; however, this isn’t a common cause of ARDS.

Nursing process step: Assessment



5. What’s the most appropriate intervention for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?


[ ] A. Administer 100 % oxygen by way of a nonre-breather mask.

[ ] B. Obtain and monitor arterial blood gas (ABG) levels.

[ ] C. Restrict fluids.

[ ] D. Place the client in a supine position.

View Answer

Correct answer—B. Rationales: The client with COPD has abnormal ABG levels, which may predispose him to respiratory distress. The client is hypoxemic with hypercapnia. Oxygen should be administered at low concentrations to maintain hypoxic drive. If the PaO2 remains inadequate at low dose, the nurse should increase the oxygen while continuously monitoring the client’s respiratory status. A client with COPD usually benefits from adequate hydration to liquefy secretions. Allow the client to assume a position that facilitates ventilation, usually a forward-leaning high Fowler’s position.

Nursing process step: Intervention



6. Impaired pulmonary capillary permeability, high positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) on a ventilator, and an inability to maintain adequate oxygen saturation are signs of which of the following?


[ ] A. Emphysema

[ ] B. Pulmonary effusion

[ ] C. Chronic bronchitis

[ ] D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

View Answer

Correct answer—D. Rationales: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is an acute physiologic syndrome characterized by noncardiac pulmonary edema caused by increased pulmonary capillary permeability, high PEEP, and low oxygen saturation despite the use of supplemental oxygen. Emphysema is a permanent condition that’s caused by alveolar destruction. Pulmonary effusion is caused by excessive fluid accumulation in the pleura, and chronic bronchitis is a narrowing of the airway passages and an increase in mucus production.

Nursing process step: Assessment



7. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is given discharge instructions regarding nutritional support. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?


[ ] A. “I should eat five or six small meals each day.”

[ ] B. “I will limit my fluid intake at mealtime.”

[ ] C. “I should select most of my foods from the carbohydrate group.”

[ ] D. “I should rest for 30 minutes before each meal.”

View Answer

Correct answer—C. Rationales: The client with COPD has a markedly increased need for protein and calories to maintain an adequate nutritional status. The client’s diet should be high in both protein and calories and should be divided into five or six small meals per day. Fluid intake should be maintained at 3 L/day unless contraindicated. Fluids should be taken between meals to reduce gastric distention and pressure on the diaphragm. The client with COPD should rest for 30 minutes before each meal to conserve energy and decrease dyspnea. The client should also avoid exercise and breathing treatments for at least 1 hour before and after eating.

Nursing process step: Evaluation




8. Right-sided heart failure can occur secondary to pulmonary embolus. Which finding is consistent with this development?


[ ] A. Physiologic S2 split heart sound

[ ] B. Peaked P wave on electrocardiogram (ECG)

[ ] C. Expiratory wheeze

[ ] D. Pericardial friction rub

View Answer

Correct answer—B. Rationales: Elevated pulmonary pressures resulting from pulmonary emboli can lead to dysfunction of the right heart, which in turn can lead to an increase in right atrial volume, showing an altered P wave on the ECG. The lead to monitor for this finding is lead II. In this lead, the P wave is taller and more peaked than a normal P wave. A physiologic S2 split is normal. When pulmonary pressures become severely elevated, the split becomes pathologic. Breath sounds are generally clear in a client with pulmonary emboli, although a pleural friction rub may be heard.

Nursing process step: Assessment



9. Air trapping, inflammation of smooth muscles, and mucus secretion are classical signs of what respiratory illness?


[ ] A. Pulmonary effusion

[ ] B. Asthma

[ ] C. Chronic bronchitis

[ ] D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

View Answer

Correct answer—B. Rationales: Inflammation of smooth muscle leading to constriction and mucus production results in air trapping, respiratory acidosis, and hypoxemia, the classic definition of asthma. Pulmonary effusion is caused by excessive fluid accumulation in the pleura. Chronic bronchitis is a narrowing of the airway passages and an increase in mucus production, but it doesn’t produce air trapping. ARDS is an acute physiologic syndrome characterized by noncardiac pulmonary edema caused by increased pulmonary capillary permeability, high PEEP, and low oxygen saturation despite the use of supplemental oxygen.

Nursing process step: Assessment



10. Which diagnostic study most accurately identifies

the presence of a pulmonary embolus?


[ ] A. Bronchoscopy

[ ] B. Chest X-ray

[ ] C. Ventilation/perfusion ([V with dot above]/[Q with dot above]) scan

[ ] D. Pulmonary angiography

View Answer

Correct answer—D. Rationales: Although riskier than a [V with dot above]/[Q with dot above] scan, pulmonary angiography confirms the presence of a pulmonary embolus. Bronchoscopy is typically used in differential diagnosis of pneumonia. A chest X-ray is usually done to rule out other pulmonary problems, such as pneumonia and atelectasis. A [V with dot above]/[Q with dot above] scan is used to locate the inadequately perfused area; however, results aren’t definitive.

Nursing process step: Assessment



11. Which drug is safe for administration to the client with asthma?


[ ] A. Beta-adrenergic blockers

[ ] B. Beta2-agonists

[ ] C. Aspirin

[ ] D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

View Answer

Correct answer—B. Rationales: Beta2-agonists are the first-line drugs of choice for the client with asthma. They relax bronchial smooth muscle and enhance mucociliary clearance. Beta-adrenergic blockers, aspirin, and NSAIDs all worsen asthma.

Nursing process step: Analysis



12. Which finding is consistent with blood loss greater than 1,500 mL in a client with a hemothorax?


[ ] A. Mediastinal shift

[ ] B. Blood pressure more than 80 mm Hg systolic

[ ] C. Capillary refill greater than 2 seconds

[ ] D. Increased urinary output

View Answer

Correct answer—A. Rationales: A mediastinal shift, systolic blood pressure less than 80 mm Hg, and a capillary refill greater than 4 seconds can all be associated with a hemothorax greater than 1,500 mL. The client with a massive hemothorax has mediastinal shift, blood pressure depicting decompensation, diminished peripheral blood flow, decreased urine output, and respiratory distress.

Nursing process step: Assessment




13. After teaching the client with asthma about inhalers, which statement indicates the need for further instruction?


[ ] A. “I should hold the inhaler upright and shake it well.”

[ ] B. “I should hold my breath for 5 to 10 seconds after each puff.”

[ ] C. “I should hold the inhaler in my mouth and make sure I have a good seal with my lips.”

[ ] D. “I should hold my head back and forcefully exhale.”

View Answer

Correct answer—D. Rationales: If the client states “I should hold my head back and forcefully exhale,” further teaching is necessary. The correct technique for using an inhaler is as follows: The inhaler must be mixed thoroughly before administration. The client should hold his breath for 5 to 10 seconds to allow the medication to reach as far as possible into the lungs. If the client has difficulty with this technique, a spacer device may be added to the inhaler. A forced exhalation isn’t recommended because coughing, small-airway closure, and air trapping may result.

Nursing process step: Evaluation



14. The first priority for a client with pulmonary embolus is:


[ ] A. correcting the hypoxia with oxygen by way of a face mask.

[ ] B. administering heparin.

[ ] C. considering thrombolytic therapy.

[ ] D. administering morphine to treat pain.

View Answer

Correct answer—A. Rationales: The priority is always airway, breathing, and circulation. Provide oxygen by face mask. If hypocapnia is present on admission, arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis should be repeated within 15 to 20 minutes. Worsening hypocapnia with progressive obtundation is an indication for emergency intubation. A loading dose of heparin should be administered, followed by a continuous drip. The heparin should be titrated to an activated partial thromboplastin time 11/2 to 2 times the control. Heparin therapy is sufficient treatment for most clients with pulmonary emboli. For clients who present with significant hemodynamic compromise, streptokinase (Streptase) and tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase [Activase]) have been approved for use in pulmonary emboli. Pain increases oxygen demand and anxiety, and it should be treated with morphine or meperidine (Demerol). The nurse should monitor ABG levels carefully to prevent carbon dioxide retention.

Nursing process step: Analysis



15. Measuring lung function by determining the client’s peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is an important step in determining the success of asthma management. What’s the optimal PEFR?


[ ] A. PEFR greater than 80% of predicted or personal best

[ ] B. PEFR variability 20% to 30%

[ ] C. PEFR less than 50% of predicted or personal best

[ ] D. PEFR variability less than 30%

View Answer

Correct answer—A. Rationales: The optimal PEFR is greater than 80% of predicted or personal best with a variability of less than 20%. Monitoring PEFR helps assess the severity of obstruction. The nurse should evaluate the client’s response to treatment and detect changes in airflow. If PEFR is increasing and subjective symptoms are decreasing, medication or dosage needn’t be changed. If PEFR is decreasing and symptoms are increasing, the client can better judge his status and adjust medications appropriately.

Nursing process step: Evaluation



16. What’s the most likely finding on a lateral neck X-ray in a child with epiglottiditis?


[ ] A. Supraglottic narrowing

[ ] B. Steeple sign

[ ] C. Thickened mass

[ ] D. Subglottic narrowing

View Answer

Correct answer—C. Rationales: X-ray assessment of the lateral neck assists in diagnosing common respiratory emergencies in children. The lateral neck X-ray of a child with epiglottiditis shows a thickened mass. The steeple sign is found in the client with viral croup syndrome. Subglottic narrowing with membranous tracheal exudate is found in bacterial tracheitis. Supraglottic narrowing isn’t a diagnostic indicator.

Nursing process step: Assessment




17. Which intervention would be least effective for a client who’s breathing deeply and coughing productively?


[ ] A. Incentive spirometry every 2 hours

[ ] B. Sitting in a chair at the bedside three times per day

[ ] C. Splinting the abdomen when coughing

[ ] D. Suctioning the client every 2 hours and when necessary

View Answer

Correct answer—D. Rationales: If the client is effectively removing secretions, suctioning can be harmful. Suctioning can cause mucosal trauma, hypoxemia, and even pulmonary infection. Incentive spirometry every 2 hours, sitting in a chair at bedside three times per day, and splinting the abdomen to facilitate coughing are all measures to prevent pneumonia.

Nursing process step: Evaluation



18. Diagnostic tests that might be helpful in supporting a diagnosis of pneumonia include:


[ ] A. complete blood count (CBC) and chest X-ray.

[ ] B. CBC, chest X-ray, and lumbar puncture.

[ ] C. chest X-ray and sedimentation rate.

[ ] D. CBC with differential and electrolytes.

View Answer

Correct answer—A. Rationales: A CBC is helpful in determining the presence of infection and identifying the microbial (viral, bacterial, fungal) agent. A chest X-ray can identify the location of the pneumonia. Sedimentation rate, electrolytes, and lumbar puncture don’t assist in the differential diagnosis of pneumonia.

Nursing process step: Assessment



19. What’s the priority intervention for a child with epiglottiditis?


[ ] A. Administering oxygen by face mask

[ ] B. Administering parenteral antibiotics

[ ] C. Assisting with intubation

[ ] D. Monitoring the electrocardiogram for arrhythmias

View Answer

Correct answer—C. Rationales: Because children are at high risk for developing abrupt airway obstruction, the most important intervention for a child with epiglottiditis is airway management. Intubation should be performed as soon as possible in a controlled environment. Children need supplemental oxygen, but most are so anxious that they won’t allow a mask to stay in place. Provide humidified “blow-by” oxygen administered by the parent, if possible. The child needs parenteral antibiotics; however, the priority is airway management. The most common rhythm in this client is sinus tachycardia related to compensation.

Nursing process step: Analysis



20. A client was admitted to the emergency department after being involved in a single-car collision. On inspection, the nurse finds tachypnea, bulging of the intercostal spaces on the left side, labored breathing with accessory muscle use, and jugular vein distention. There is hyperresonance on the left side and absent breath sounds on the left. What’s the most likely diagnosis, based on the findings described above?


[ ] A. Tension pneumothorax

[ ] B. Flail chest

[ ] C. Ruptured diaphragm

[ ] D. Massive hemothorax

View Answer

Correct answer—A. Rationales: Tension pneumothorax presents with severe respiratory distress, hypotension, diminished breath sounds over the affected area, hyperresonance, jugular vein distention and, eventually, tracheal shift. A finding of multiple rib fractures in a client with respiratory distress verifies a diagnosis of flail chest. A client with a ruptured diaphragm presents with hyperresonance on percussion, hypotension, dyspnea, dysphagia, shifted heart sounds, and bowel sounds in the lower to middle chest. A client with massive hemothorax shows signs of shock (tachycardia, hypotension), dullness on percussion on the injured side, decreased breath sounds on the injured side, respiratory distress, and possibly, mediastinal shift.

Nursing process step: Assessment




21. What’s the most common cause of traumatic pneumothorax?


[ ] A. Broken ribs

[ ] B. Gunshot wound

[ ] C. Barotrauma

[ ] D. Central line insertion

View Answer

Correct answer—A. Rationales: The most common cause of traumatic pneumothorax is broken ribs. Other common causes include penetrating trauma (gunshot or knife wound), insertion of a central venous pressure catheter, barotrauma in mechanically ventilated clients, and closed pleural biopsy.

Nursing process step: Assessment



22. Which finding indicates that a chest tube isn’t effective in the management of a pneumothorax?


[ ] A. Client resting, respirations 12 breaths/minute

[ ] B. Breath sounds equal bilaterally, equal chest excursion

Only gold members can continue reading. Log In or Register to continue

Stay updated, free articles. Join our Telegram channel

Jul 21, 2016 | Posted by in NURSING | Comments Off on Respiratory Emergencies

Full access? Get Clinical Tree

Get Clinical Tree app for offline access