Scenarios and items in this section focus on the pharmacologic concerns encountered in the practice of perianesthesia nursing. These concepts are considered together because:
• Anesthetic medications alter and usually depress the function of vital organ systems.
• Interactions among medications produce varied patient responses indicated by allergic reactions, potentiated effects, compatibility concerns, altered neuromuscular and cardiopulmonary function, and side effects or contraindications.
• Assessment, intervention, and evaluation of the pharmacologic effects specifically related to anesthetic medications and techniques are primary and essential nursing responsibilities.
ESSENTIAL CORE CONCEPTS | AFFILIATED CORE CURRICULUM CHAPTERS |
---|---|
Nursing Process | Chapters 2, 3 |
Assessment | |
Planning and Implementation | |
Evaluation | |
Scope of Practice | |
Standards of Care | |
Pharmacologic Principles in Action | Chapters 26, 27 |
Anatomy and Physiology | |
Agonists and Antagonists | |
Dose, Onset and Duration of Action, Clearance | |
Neurotransmitters, Reversal and Toxicity | |
Receptors, Synapses, Vascular Tone, and Target Organs | |
Responses: Same Medication, Different Sites | |
Anesthetic Techniques | |
Balanced | |
Dissociative (Neuroleptic) | |
Epidural | |
General | |
Intravenous (IV) Regional Block | |
Local Infiltration | |
Spinal | |
Conscious Sedation | |
Dermatome Assessment | |
Efficacy, Potency, and Tolerance | |
Enhancing and Inhibiting Pharmacologic | |
Environment | |
Minimum Alveolar Concentration | |
Pharmacodynamics | |
Clinical Consequences | |
Pharmacokinetics | |
Absorption, Distribution, and Elimination | |
Unique Properties and Effects | |
Anesthetic Medications | Chapter 26 |
Actions and Consequences for: | |
Inhalation Anesthetics | |
Gaseous Inhalants | |
Volatile Liquids | |
IV Medications | |
Barbiturates, Hypnotics, and Sedatives | |
Dissociative and Induction Agents | |
Narcotics and Antagonists | |
Reversal of Effect | |
Local Anesthetics | |
Amides and Esters | |
Assessing Blockade | |
Regional Techniques | |
Muscle Relaxants | |
Assessing Neuromuscular Blockade | |
Depolarizing Medications | |
Nondepolarizing Medications | |
Reversal Medications and Influencing Factors | |
Perianesthetic Medication Potpourri | |
Anticholinergics | |
Antiemetics | Chapters 35, 36 |
Benzodiazepines | Chapters 26, 27 |
Bronchodilators | |
Cardioactive Drugs and Diuretics | Chapter 32 |
Corticosteroids | |
Nonsteroidal Antiinflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) | |
Oxygen | |
Pharmacology of Cardiac Life Support | Chapter 32 |
“Tuning” Electrolyte and Acid-Base Balance | Chapters 24, 25 |
Managing Analgesia | Chapter 29 |
Agonistic and Antagonistic | |
Management and Monitoring IV, Intramuscular (IM), Regional, PCA | |
Pain Receptors | |
Physiologic Stress Response |
ITEMS 4.1-4.25
4.1. The primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system is:
a. acetylcholine.
b. dopamine.
c. epinephrine.
d. norepinephrine.
4.2. A 56-year-old woman is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. She has a history of mitral valve prolapse, moderate obesity, and a childhood history of polio and rheumatic heart disease. Particularly for this patient, the preanesthesia nurse recognizes the importance of prophylactic:
a. heparin anticoagulation.
b. loop or osmotic diuretics.
c. cardiac digitalization.
d. broad-spectrum antibiotics.
4.3. Eliminating the systemic effects of a volatile anesthetic medication most varies with:
a. alveolar ventilation.
b. volume of distribution.
c. renal blood flow.
d. rate of hepatic clearance.
4.4. To alter blood pressure, hydralazine’s primary physiologic effect is to:
a. release renin by constricting renal vasculature.
b. reduce cardiac contractile force.
c. dilate arterial smooth muscle.
d. increase myocardial rate.
4.5. All of the following medications tend to cause pain on injection except:
a. diazepam.
b. propofol.
c. ketamine.
d. methohexital.
4.6. By definition, minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) is the lowest concentration of an inhalation anesthetic that:
a. allows spontaneous breathing in half of patients.
b. sustains an effective half-life for stage IV anesthesia.
c. eliminates ventilation in 50% of patients at 0.5% anesthetic concentration.
d. eradicates movement to pain in 50% of patients.
4.7. A factor that least affects a patient’s minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) requirement is the patient’s:
a. age.
b. gender.
c. temperature.
d. circulation.
4.8. Pharmacokinetics involves the study of all of the following except:
a. biotransformation.
b. mechanism of action.
c. distribution.
d. absorption.
4.9. When compared with diazepam, an equivalent dose of midazolam is:
a. not comparable.
b. 2 to 4 times greater.
c. equivalent, milligram for milligram.
d. one-half to two-thirds less.
4.10. The “antidote” to treat anticholinesterase medication overdose is intravenous:
a. atropine sulphate.
b. edrophonium chloride.
c. dexamethasone.
d. azathioprine.
4.12. Which of the following drugs is associated with a higher incidence of nausea and vomiting?
a. Propofol
b. Midazolam
c. Ketamine
d. Etomidate
4.13. An infant’s and child’s initial response to induction of anesthesia with inhalation agents varies from the adult’s response primarily because the infant’s and child’s:
a. tissues are highly vascular.
b. vital organs slowly absorb medications.
c. sensitive airway tissues easily spasm.
d. metabolic rate and oxygen demand are lower.
4.14. Effective 5-HT3 receptor antagonists used for decreasing the rate of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) include all of the following except:
a. ondansetron.
b. dolasetron.
c. dexamethasone.
d. granisetron.
4.15. Which of the following does not increase the block of nondepolarizing muscle relaxants?
a. Calcium channel blockers
b. Aminoglycosides
c. Halothane
d. Theophylline
4.16. A healthy 28-year-old woman is awake, alert, and oriented when admitted to the Phase I PACU at 9:50 am after a 20-minute right carpal tunnel release. Vital signs are within 20% of preoperative measures. Anesthesia was by IV regional block with sedation and analgesia. At 9:55 am, the PACU nurse notes that this patient is not responsive and observes generalized tonic-clonic motor activity. The most likely reason for this activity is:
a. unidentified idiopathic convulsive disorder.
b. extreme hyperventilation related to pain and anxiety.
c. generalized central nervous system toxicity.
d. hypoxemic seizure related to oversedation.
4.17. An IV regional technique involves:
a. infiltrating the surgical site with a narcotic.
b. injecting local anesthetic after obliterating blood flow.
c. infusing nitroprusside to suppress local blood loss.
d. instilling local anesthetic into intracellular fluid.
4.18. The most common mechanism of action of local anesthesia is:
a. inhibition of sodium influx.
b. inhibition of potassium efflux.
c. prevention of potassium influx.
d. decrease of threshold of sodium channels.
4.19. After carpal tunnel release with IV regional block, the most positive patient outcomes are achieved by:
a. 100 mL fluid in a wound drain and SpO2 measures of more than 91%.
b. pain level rating of “1 to 2” and gradual release of one tourniquet in the Phase I PACU.
c. immediate return of arm sensation and overhead suspension to limit edema.
d. moderate motor control of extremity and minimal bleeding.
4.20. The inhalation anesthetic that is most likely to induce airway spasm is:
a. desflurane.
b. enflurane.
c. halothane.
d. isoflurane.
4.22. Systemic toxicity of local anesthetics is not potentiated by:
a. pregnancy.
b. hypercarbia.
c. acidosis.
d. alkalosis.
4.23. Compared with intramuscular morphine, providing analgesia with a continuous epidural morphine infusion decreases all the following effects except:
a. episodic somnolence and variable duration.
b. muscle activity and vomiting.
c. neuroendocrine stress responses.
d. incidence of pneumonia.
4.24. The epidural space contains the following anatomic structures except:
a. blood vessels.
b. adipose tissue.
c. cerebrospinal fluid.
d. lymph capillaries.
4.25. Addition of epinephrine to local anesthesia solutions results in all the following except:
a. prolongation of duration of anesthesia.
b. decrease in blockade intensity.
c. minimization of peak blood levels.
d. reduced surgical bleeding.
ITEMS 4.26-4.53
4.26. Cocaine-induced hypertension and tachycardia occur through:
a. direct cholinergic stimulation.
b. lacing cocaine doses with epinephrine.
c. indirect glucocorticoid reflexes.
d. blocked norepinephrine reuptake.
4.27. Muscle relaxants metabolized by plasma cholinesterase include:
a. succinylcholine and atracurium.
b. succinylcholine and mivacurium.
c. rocuronium and mivacurium.
d. atracurium and rocuronium.
4.28. Which of the following statements regarding usage of beta blockers is not true?
a. Metoprolol is used to treat patients having an acute myocardial infarction.
b. Toxic effects of metoprolol are potentiated by volatile anesthetics.
c. Metoprolol is used to treat the patient with ventricular dysrhythmias.
d. Metoprolol is used to treat hypertension associated with methamphetamine abuse.
4.29. The drug of choice to treat renal and biliary colic is:
a. morphine sulfate.
b. codeine.
c. meperidine.
d. hydromorphone.
4.30. Side effects occurring with the administration of ketorolac include all the following except:
a. reversible inhibition of platelet aggregation.
b. bronchospasm in patients with an asthma history.
c. bronchospasm in patients with aspirin (ASA) sensitivity.
d. a decrease in liver transaminase plasma levels.
4.31. Safe administration of parenteral ketorolac includes all the following factors except:
a. providing effective narcotic analgesia before dosing.
b. reducing the dose for a 75-year-old, 48-kg woman.
c. limiting an IV loading dose to 15 to 30 mg.
d. determining any “breathing difficulty” when using aspirin.
4.32. Nalbuphine’s specific opioid receptor actions include:
a. mu antagonist, kappa and sigma agonist.
b. mu and sigma agonist, kappa antagonist.
c. mu agonist, kappa and sigma antagonist.
d. pure mu, sigma and kappa antagonist.
4.33. What effect does magnesium have on the potency of muscle relaxants?
a. Increases potency of both depolarizing and nondepolarizing muscle relaxants
b. Decreases potency of both depolarizing and nondepolarizing muscle relaxants
c. Increases potency of nondepolarizing muscle relaxants and decreases potency of depolarizing muscle relaxants
d. Increases potency of depolarizing muscle relaxants and increases potency of depolarizing muscle relaxants
4.34. A male patient sustained a tibial-fibular fracture in a motor vehicle accident 48 hours ago. He is admitted to PACU after an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with tetracaine spinal anesthetic. During his first 30 minutes after admission, the PACU nurse observes increasing restlessness, disorientation, and tremulousness. He is currently diaphoretic, temperature is 36° C (96.8° F), heart rate is 128 bpm, cardiac rhythm is sinus, and blood pressure is 188/95. These symptoms are most likely caused by:
a. tetracaine toxicity.
b. cocaine overstimulation.
c. alcohol withdrawal syndrome.
d. deferred traumatic intraspinal bleeding.
4.35. A wildly restless, crying, and confused 12-year-old boy attempts to climb off the stretcher in the PACU. While assuring the physical safety of staff and patient, the nurse explains possible causes for the child’s behavior to his mother, who visits in the PACU. Causes could include any of the following except:
a. hypoxemia.
b. central cholinergic effect.
c. bladder distention.
d. pseudocholinesterase toxicity.
4.36. Physostigmine is occasionally used to:
a. augment the analgesic effect of narcotics at the dorsal horn.
b. increase acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.
c. reverse consciousness-depressing effects of narcotics at the hypothalamus.
d. inhibit norepinephrine penetration of the blood-brain barrier.
4.37. A retrobulbar block is administered to a patient. The patient’s level of consciousness decreases, and apnea ensues. The most likely cause of the decreased consciousness and apnea is:
a. intrathecal injection.
b. inadvertent intraocular injection.
c. retrobulbar hemorrhage.
d. inadvertent intravascular injection.
4.38. Nursing observations after administering physostigmine salicylate include monitoring:
a. temperature for hyperpyrexia.
b. consciousness for atypical hyperactivity.
c. cardiac rhythm for bradycardia.
d. muscle function for fasciculation.
4.39. After a total of 0.6 mg of IV flumazenil, the PACU nurse evaluates the patient’s response for evidence of flumazenil-induced:
a. muscular re-relaxation.
b. emerging incisional pain.
c. sinus bradycardia.
d. respiratory depression.
4.40. Succinylcholine is classified as a(an):
a. depolarizing muscle relaxant.
b. anticholinesterase blocker.
c. calcium channel inhibitor.
d. nondepolarizing muscle relaxant.
4.41. An absolute contraindication to spinal anesthesia includes all the following except:

a. localized infection at the site.
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