Maxillofacial Emergencies
1. Which of the following isn’t indicated for a client with a nasal fracture?
[ ] A. Pain medication
[ ] B. Tetanus prophylaxis
[ ] C. Antibiotic therapy
[ ] D. Topical vasoconstriction
View Answer
Correct answer—D. Rationales: The administration of pain medication, tetanus prophylaxis, and antibiotics are all appropriate interventions because nasal fractures should be treated like open fractures. A topical vasoconstriction is used for the treatment of epistaxis or foreign-body extraction.
Nursing process step: Implementation
2. A client who has recently been involved in an altercation arrives in the emergency department. A zygomatic fracture is suspected. The nurse should check for anesthesia or hyperesthesia from infraorbital nerve damage on the affected side in all the following areas except:
[ ] A. mandible.
[ ] B. cheek.
[ ] C. nose.
[ ] D. upper lip.
View Answer
Correct answer—A. Rationales: The cheek, nose, and upper lip are all supplied by the infraorbital nerve as it exits through the zygoma. The mandible is supplied by a branch of the facial nerve.
Nursing process step: Assessment
3. A client with multiple traumas—a right fractured femur, right clavicle fracture, and right-sided pneumothorax—is suspected of having a zygomatic fracture. The physician orders a Waters’ view X-ray to obtain a definitive diagnosis of the zygomatic fracture. Why should the nurse question this X-ray view?
[ ] A. It requires a supine position with forward flexion of the neck.
[ ] B. It requires a right lateral position with hyper-extension of the neck.
[ ] C. It requires a prone position with hyperextension of the neck.
[ ] D. It requires a left lateral position with flexion of the neck.
View Answer
Correct answer—C. Rationales: The Waters’ view requires the client to lie in a prone position with hyperextension of the neck. This client wouldn’t be able to safely assume this position because of the multiple injuries. Supine position with forward flexion of the neck represents a submentovertex view that could be used if cervical spine injury were ruled out. A right lateral position with hyperextension of the neck and a left lateral position with flexion of the neck aren’t positions of either view.
Nursing process step: Assessment
4. When considering a client’s medical history and general appearance, what predisposing factor may be significant to a diagnosis of sinusitis?
[ ] A. Dental abscesses
[ ] B. Presence of dentures
[ ] C. Deviated septum repair
[ ] D. Asthma
View Answer
Correct answer—A. Rationales: Dental abscesses, cocaine use, and smoking are all significant predisposing factors to a diagnosis of sinusitis. Other factors include foreign bodies in the nose, allergic rhinitis, use of nasogastric tubes, and air pollution. Dentures, rhinoplasty, and asthma don’t contribute to sinusitis.
Nursing process step: Assessment
5. Other evidence that supports a diagnosis of sinusitis includes all of the following except:
[ ] A. conjunctivitis.
[ ] B. periorbital edema.
[ ] C. paresthesia of the cheek.
[ ] D. opacification to transillumination.
View Answer
Correct answer—C. Rationales: Conjunctivitis, periorbital edema, and opacification to transillumination all indicate sinusitis. Paresthesia of the cheek is present with a zygomatic fracture.
Nursing process step: Assessment
6. Which statement expresses a clear understanding of the client’s discharge instructions for use of a decongestant medication?
[ ] A. “I need to spray one time in each nostril with the decongestant.”
[ ] B. “I’ll buy an ice pack to use.”
[ ] C. “I’ll use this spray (decongestant) for only 3 days.”
[ ] D. “When I feel better, I can stop the antibiotics.”
View Answer
Correct answer—C. Rationales: Decongestants should be used for only about 3 days. If used for an extended period, a rebound occurs and may cause severe nasal congestion when the drug is discontinued. Two sprays are recommended: one to shrink the mucosa so the second spray (dose) can reach the upper turbinate and sinus ostia. Heat treatment is preferred to cold applications. Antibiotics should be taken for the full course of therapy; discontinuing early may cause the infection to return.
Nursing process step: Evaluation
7. Neosynephrine is used in the treatment of epistaxis to:
[ ] A. reduce vomiting.
[ ] B. reduce anxiety.
[ ] C. constrict vessels.
[ ] D. dilate vessels.
View Answer
Correct answer—C. Rationales: Neosynephrine on a saturated pledget that’s inserted into the nares assists in epistaxis treatment by constricting blood vessels, thereby decreasing bleeding and improving visualization of the area. Reducing vomiting and anxiety and dilating vessels aren’t effects of neosynephrine.
Nursing process step: Analysis
8. All of the following infectious processes can cause significant airway obstruction, necessitating incision and drainage and, possibly, acute airway intervention except:
[ ] A. epiglottiditis.
[ ] B. peritonsillar abscess.
[ ] C. retropharyngeal abscess.
[ ] D. Ludwig’s angina.
View Answer
Correct answer—A. Rationales: Epiglottiditis, an acute bacterial infection, causes swelling of the epiglottis and subsequent airway obstruction. It’s treated with antibiotics, humidified oxygen, intubation, or cricothyrotomy; incision and drainage are unnecessary. Peritonsillar abscess and retropharyngeal abscess are complications of acute suppurative tonsillitis. Symptoms include a septic appearance, fever, drooling, foul breath, and a muffled voice. Clients with these abscesses require close airway monitoring, incisions, and drainage. Ludwig’s angina presents with high fever, dyspnea, and elevation of the tongue and floor of the mouth. It’s caused by streptococcal bacilli and results in a bilateral boardlike swelling of the neck. Sudden airway obstruction can occur; incision and drainage may be required.
Nursing process step: Analysis
9. What element of medical history information wouldn’t be important in the assessment of a client with epistaxis?
[ ] A. Hypertension
[ ] B. Arteriosclerotic heart disease
[ ] C. Arthritis
[ ] D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
View Answer
Correct answer—D. Rationales: COPD wouldn’t be of concern regarding a nosebleed. Hypertension may be a cause of epistaxis. Arteriosclerotic heart disease may predispose a client to hypertension secondary to decreased compliance of the arterial walls or decreased arterial vessel lumen. Medications used to treat arthritis may increase a client’s hemostatic abnormalities.
Nursing process step: Assessment
10. A client arrives in the emergency department with obvious facial injuries. The client has a laceration and swelling over the left eye as well as pain and ecchymosis on the left side of the face. He can close his eyes tightly, wrinkle his forehead, and elevate his upper lip. Sensation to touch on the left side is absent. Which cranial nerve may be damaged?
[ ] A. Oculomotor
[ ] B. Trochlear
[ ] C. Trigeminal
[ ] D. Facial
View Answer
Correct answer—C. Rationales: The trigeminal nerve provides facial sensation and jaw movements. These tests assess trigeminal nerve injury: pain, touch, hot and cold sensations, biting, and the ability to open the mouth against resistance. The facial nerve has three branches that deal with facial expression and taste. The zygomatic branch provides the ability to close the eyes tightly; the temporal branch provides the ability to elevate the brows and wrinkle the forehead; and the buccal branch provides the ability to wrinkle the nose, whistle, and elevate the upper lip. The oculomotor and trochlear nerves elicit eyeball movement as well as pupillary response.
Nursing process step: Assessment
11. Which discharge instruction is inappropriate for a client with a diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia?
[ ] A. Avoid cold drinks.
[ ] B. Wash the face gently.
[ ] C. Instill artificial tears.
[ ] D. Use analgesics as ordered.
View Answer
Correct answer—C. Rationales: Instilling artificial tears is an appropriate intervention for Bell’s palsy, in which the eyelid can’t close and injury and damage to the eye are potential problems. Trigeminal neuralgia causes severe, intermittent facial pain that can be elicited by stimulating a trigger zone on the face; these clients should avoid cold drinks, cold wind, and swimming in cold water. Gentle washing of the face assists in decreased stimulation of the trigger zone. The client needs to understand that analgesic medications are indicated until the problem resolves.
Nursing process step: Intervention
12. A 50-year-old client comes to the emergency department after being found in a local park confused, weak, and complaining of a “sore mouth.” The client appears unkempt, has poor dentition, an edematous tongue, and a foul odor coming from her mouth. She is confused and febrile and is unable to close her mouth completely. She is noted to have firm edema tracking from the left lower mandible into the neck. Palpation produces pain in the neck, and the client is unable to turn her head from side to side. The nurse should be concerned that the client has symptoms of:
[ ] A. stroke.
[ ] B. Ludwig’s angina.
[ ] C. epiglottiditis.
[ ] D. anaphylactic reaction.
View Answer
Correct answer—B. Rationales: Ludwig’s angina refers to cellulitis involving the floor of the mouth. This infection is usually due to Streptococcus or Staphylococcus species in adults. Clients usually present with pain, tenderness, and swelling of the mouth floor. Stroke symptoms don’t include edema of the mouth. Epiglottiditis symptoms are located in the posterior pharynx. An anaphylactic reaction wouldn’t cause fever and would be generalized versus specific to left side of the face.
Nursing process step: Analysis
13. Which of the following best describes the proper application of a dressing after incision and drainage of an auricular hematoma?
[ ] A. Provide support for the pinna with gauze in, around, and behind it. Place a slit 4″ × 4″ behind the ear, cover the ear with fluffed gauze, and apply a fluff roll bandage or a conforming gauze bandage circumferentially.
[ ] B. No dressing is required; simply apply antibiotic ointment and instruct the client to keep the area clean and dry.
[ ] C. Place Vaseline gauze over the incision area. Cover the gauze with several 4″ × 4″ gauze pads, and tape them in place.
[ ] D. Fill the ear canal and pinna with gauze. Cover the area with 4″ × 4″ gauze pads, wrap with a conforming gauze bandage, then apply a fairly tight elastic bandage.
View Answer
Correct answer—A. Rationales: To reduce pain and cartilage necrosis, the nurse should support the pinna with gauze in, around, and behind it, thereby decreasing and preventing pressure. Cover the ear with fluffed gauze, and apply a fluff roll bandage or conforming gauze bandage circumferentially. The ear should be protected and well-padded with a bulky dressing. A constrictive dressing causes more damage, and no dressing will leave the ear itself unprotected and increase the risk of bacterial invasion. Taping a dressing won’t keep it in place or provide the needed bulkiness.
Nursing process step: Intervention
14. Fourteen days after an altercation, a client complains of outer ear pain. The nurse notes necrotic areas of auricular cartilage, and a diagnosis of “cauliflower ear” is made. Evaluation shows that initial treatment of the client’s wounds should have included:
[ ] A. instillation of antibiotic eardrops for 5 days.
[ ] B. incision and drainage or aspiration of auricular hematoma.
[ ] C. omission of tetanus toxoid prophylaxis regimen.