Chapter 1
Data Collection
Questions
1. What type of cartilage is normally found on joint surfaces?
2. Which of the following is a grade II muscle strain?
a. Moderate tearing of muscle fibers, with some strength loss but without complete tearing of the muscle
b. Tearing of a few muscle fibers without strength loss
c. Complete tearing of the muscle with complete strength loss
d. Complete tearing of the muscle but with preserved strength
3. A hard callus is formed in what phase of bone healing?
4. At what age is the knee meniscus the most vascular?
5. Articular cartilage can be described as:
6. Which of the following is a normal response by articular cartilage to the aging process?
a. Proteoglycan aggregation is increased.
b. Chondroitin sulfate content is reduced.
c. Hydrophilic proteoglycans increase their ability to hold water.
d. Larger proteoglycans are synthesized with an increase in keratin sulfate content.
7. Which of the following is NOT a primary influence for bone remodeling?
8. Which of the following types of bone fractures is unique to children?
9. Fatigue-resistant type I muscle fibers demonstrate which of the following attributes?
10. Which of the following is NOT a common gait deviation seen with children who have Down syndrome?
11. The PTA is using a scoliometer to screen for scoliosis in adolescent patients. What is the minimal degree of deviation from 0 that warrants further medical evaluation?
12. An infant has a myelomeningocele at level L4 to L5. Which of the following muscles would most likely have normal function in this individual?
13. An individual with a right torticollis will present with which of the following?
a. Left side bending and left rotation
b. Right side bending and right rotation
c. Left side bending and right rotation
14. Which of the following groups of individuals are most likely to have the highest bone mass?
15. A patient reports to physical therapy and states that her bone mineral density testing T-score is −0.8. What is the correct interpretation of this datum?
a. This is a normal score with low risk for fracture.
b. This patient has a high risk for fracture.
c. This patient should be classified with osteopenia.
16. Which of the following is NOT a part of the axial skeleton?
17. You begin manual muscle testing on a client with osteoporosis. Which of the following muscles would you expect to be the weakest?
18. Which of the following statements best describes a person’s base of support?
a. The type of surface one is standing on
b. The area, projected on the ground, of the broadest/widest part of the body
c. The area of the body in contact with the supporting surface
19. Static posture may be assessed during which activity?
20. The zero position for measuring joint range of motion for most joints is based on which of the following?
21. Which of the following characterizes swayback posture?
a. Anterior pelvic tilt and increased lumbar lordosis
b. Posterior pelvic tilt and increased lumbar lordosis
c. Anterior pelvic tilt and decreased lumbar lordosis
22. During postural assessment, all of the following should be in vertical alignment EXCEPT which?
a. External auditory meatus and greater trochanter of the hip
b. External auditory meatus and acromion
d. Anterior-superior iliac spine and greater trochanter of the hip
23. Rotation is described by which of the following statements?
a. Turning about a longitudinal axis
b. Sliding motion usually of a flat or slightly curved surface relative to another surface
c. Upward and downward gliding of the scapulae
d. Anterior and posterior movements at the sternoclavicular joint
24. What is an accurate description of flexion at the lumbar spine?
25. Which of the following describes a posterior pelvic tilt?
a. Upward movement of the anterior-superior iliac spine (ASIS), downward movement of the posterior-superior iliac spine (PSIS), and lumbar extension
b. Downward movement of the ASIS, upward movement of the PSIS, and lumbar extension
c. Upward movement of the ASIS, downward movement of the PSIS, and lumbar flexion
d. Downward movement of the ASIS, upward movement of the PSIS, and lumbar flexion
26. Where is a muscle strain on the biceps brachii most likely to occur?
27. In the outpatient setting, you are asked by the supervising physical therapist to assess a patient with complete active range of motion against gravity of the knee. He can also tolerate minimal resistance and has full passive range of motion. What is his appropriate manual muscle testing grade?
28. What is the fastest, most efficient way to assess muscle strength in the clinical setting?
29. In patients with spondyloarthropathies, Schober’s test measures which of the following?
30. The unique purpose of combining sequences of movement during a range-of-motion (ROM) assessment is to do which of the following?
a. Determine the presence of hypomobility
b. Determine the presence of hypermobility
c. More closely approximate functional movements that are problematic to the patient
31. A mechanical provocation test in which symptom relief indicates the presence of foraminal encroachment is called which of the following?
32. The C5 nerve root can be tested with what upper extremity reflex?
33. Which of the following are bones that develop in tendons and areas where tendons cross the ends of long bones?
34. Which of the following defines an avulsion fracture?
a. A fracture that runs parallel to the bone
b. A fracture in which one fragment of the bone is driven into another
c. A fracture caused by repeated low-force trauma
d. A fracture caused by sudden muscular contraction wherein the ligament pulls away from the bone
35. The PTA intends to use a circumferential measurement of the involved knee to assess the edema at the suprapatellar pouch. Where should this measurement be obtained on the involved lower extremity?
36. What is the phase of the gait cycle encompassing initial double support and involving approximation of the foot to the supporting surface?
37. During normal gait, the period of double support encompasses what percentage of the gait cycle?
38. What period in the gait cycle is likely to increase when there is bilateral lower extremity weakness?
39. Which of the following is NOT a critical functional task for successful walking?
a. Acceptance of weight by the supporting limb
b. Forward flexion of the trunk at initial contact
c. A period of single limb support
40. The hamstrings do NOT perform which of the following functions during gait?
a. Stabilize the trunk at the initial contact phase of gait
b. Decelerate the tibia during the terminal swing phase of gait
c. Stabilize the knee during the stance phase of gait
41. The typical times spent in swing phase and stance phase in a gait cycle are which of the following?
a. Swing phase 60% and stance phase 40%
b. Swing phase 40% and stance phase 60%
c. Swing phase 50% and stance phase 50%
42. Using Rancho Los Amigos gait terminology, what period of gait is defined as the period when the body’s center of gravity moves anterior to the supporting limb until the opposite limb makes contact with the support surface?
43. Which of the following would be the correct definition of step length?
a. The distance between the point of initial contact of one extremity and the point of initial contact of the opposite extremity
b. The distance between the point of initial contact of one extremity and the next point of initial contact of the same extremity
c. The point of initial contact of one extremity and the point of terminal stance at the opposite extremity
d. The point of initial contact of one extremity and the next point of terminal stance of the same extremity
44. At what point during the gait cycle is the knee in maximum flexion?
45. When are the ankle dorsiflexors the least active during the gait cycle?
46. Which of the following conditions is an irritation of the fluid-filled sacs designed to decrease friction between structures in the body?
47. A sprain occurs when what structure is stressed?
48. Which of the following is the ability of the patient to voluntarily move a limb through an arc movement?
49. What type of tool is used to measure range of motion at a joint?
50. Using the 0 to 5 manual muscle testing grade scale, what level of strength would a muscle receive if it were able to move the body segment to the complete range of motion with gravity eliminated?
51. What is the term for the property of joints that allows the joint surfaces to glide, roll, and spin on each other allowing increased range of motion?
52. Which of the following tests objectively measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles?
53. Which of the following are standardized instruments that measure an individual’s actual or perceived activity limitations?
54. Getting out of the bed, drinking from a cup, and putting on shoes are all examples of what?
55. If a therapist uses palpation to assess the patient, what is the therapist doing?
56. Which of the following is a test for shoulder impingement?
57. During the opening of a patient’s mouth, a palpable and audible click is discovered in the left temporomandibular joint. The physician informs the therapist that the patient has an anteriorly dislocated disk. What does this click most likely signify?
a. The condyle is sliding anterior to obtain normal relationship with the disk.
b. The condyle is sliding posterior to obtain normal relationship with the disk.
c. The condyle is sliding anterior and losing normal relationship with the disk.
d. The condyle is sliding posterior and losing normal relationship with the disk.
58. In what position should the PTA place the upper extremity to palpate the supraspinatus tendon?
a. Full abduction, full flexion, and full external rotation
b. Full abduction, full flexion, and full internal rotation
c. Full adduction, full external rotation, and full extension
d. Full adduction, full internal rotation, and full extension
59. A 17-year-old athlete has just received a posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction. The PTA is attempting to explain some of the characteristics of the posterior cruciate ligament. Which of the following is incorrect information?
a. The posterior cruciate ligament prevents posterior translation of the tibia on the femur.
b. Posterior bands of the posterior cruciate ligament are tightest in full knee extension.
c. The posterior cruciate ligament is attached to the lateral meniscus and not to the medial meniscus.
d. The posterior cruciate ligament helps with medial rotation of the tibia during full knee extension with open chain activities.
60. Components of lower extremity alignment that contribute to toe in include which of the following?
61. Which of the following patients is most likely to have osteophyte formation that leads to rotator cuff damage?
62. The cuboid bone is located just posterior to what structure?
63. The metacarpophalangeal joints are classified as what type of joint?
64. Which muscle would move the abducted (90-degree) arm anteriorly?
a. Sternocostal head of the pectoralis major
b. Clavicular head of the pectoralis major
c. Inferior fibers of the serratus anterior
65. Which of the following structures does NOT pass through the foramen magnum of the occipital bone?
66. Contraction of which muscle produces extension of the head?
67. The nucleus pulposus is thickest in which region of the spine?
68. The speed of muscle contraction is a function of which of the following factors?
a. Resting length of the muscle fiber
b. Cross-sectional diameter of the muscle
c. Creatine phosphate of the muscle
69. Which of the following describes the proper normal anatomy of the proximal carpal row, from lateral to medial?
a. Capitate, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform
b. Lunate, trapezium, capitate, hamate
c. Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform
70. A physician notes a vertebral fracture on the radiograph of a patient involved in a car crash. The fractured vertebra has a bifid spinous process. Which of the following vertebrae is the most likely to be involved?
71. If the line of gravity is posterior to the hip joint in standing, on what does the body first rely to keep the trunk from moving into excessive lumbar extension?
72. What is the closed-packed position of the shoulder?
a. Internal rotation and abduction
b. External rotation and abduction
c. Internal rotation and adduction
73. A patient with a diagnosis of a rotator cuff tear has just begun active range of motion. The PTA is strengthening the rotator cuff muscles to increase joint stability and oppose the superior shear of the deltoid. Which of the following rotator cuff muscles participates least in an opposing the superior shear force of the deltoid?
74. What portion of the adult knee meniscus is vascularized?
75. At what age does a human have the greatest amount of fluid in the intervertebral disk?
76. Which of the following is NOT an example of a synarthrodial joint in the body?
77. Observing a patient in a standing position, the PTA notes that an angulation deformity of the left knee causes it to be located medially in relation to the left hip and left foot. This condition is commonly referred to as which of the following?
78. Which of the following is the most vulnerable position for dislocation of the hip?
a. 30 degrees of hip extension, 30 degrees of hip adduction, and minimal internal rotation
b. 30 degrees of hip flexion, 30 degrees of hip adduction, and minimal external rotation
c. 30 degrees of hip flexion, 30 degrees of hip abduction, and minimal external rotation
d. 30 degrees of hip extension, 30 degrees hip abduction, and minimal external rotation
79. A physician ordered a splint for a patient who should keep the thumb of the involved hand in abduction. A new graduate PTA is treating the patient and is confused about the difference between thumb flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction. Which of the following lists is correct?
a. Extension is performed in a plane parallel to the palm of the hand, and abduction is performed in a plane perpendicular to the palm of the hand.
b. Flexion is performed in a plane perpendicular to the palm of the hand, and adduction is performed in a plane parallel to the palm of the hand.
c. Extension is performed in a plane perpendicular to the palm of the hand, and adduction is performed in a plane parallel to the palm of the hand.
d. In referring to positions of the thumb, flexion and adduction are used synonymously, and extension and abduction are used synonymously.
80. Which of the following is NOT part of the triangular fibrocartilage complex of the wrist?
81. What is the normal low-end range for interincisal opening with a temporomandibular joint dysfunction patient?
82. The PTA is analyzing a patient’s gait with descending stairs. During left single-limb stance, the patient demonstrates a right pelvic drop with left trunk lean. What is the physical therapy hypothesis in this case?
a. Weak right gluteus medius with left trunk lean to move center of mass toward stronger side
b. Weak left gluteus medius with left trunk lean to move center of mass toward weaker side
c. Weak left quadratus lumborum producing left trunk lean
d. Weak right gluteus medius with left trunk lean to move center of mass toward stronger side
83. Which is true about the hip joint?
a. Its closed pack position is extension with full external rotation.
b. Its loose pack position is 30 degrees of abduction, 70 degrees of flexion with lateral rotation.
c. With its capsular pattern of restriction, medial rotation is most restricted.
d. With its capsular pattern of restriction, flexion is most restricted.
84. Whiplash injury from a rear-end collision would tear which of the following ligaments?
85. A PTA should place the knee in which of the following positions to palpate the lateral collateral ligament?
a. Knee at 60 degrees of flexion and the hip externally rotated
b. Knee at 20 degrees of flexion and the hip at neutral
c. Knee at 90 degrees of flexion and the hip externally rotated
86. A patient is in prone position with her head rotated to the left side. The left upper extremity is placed at her side and fully internally rotated. The left shoulder is then shrugged toward the chin. The PTA then grasps the midshaft of the patient’s left forearm. The patient is then instructed to “try to reach your feet using just your left arm.” This movement is resisted by the PTA. This test is assessing the strength of what muscle?
87. Which of the following is the normal end-feel perceived by a PTA assessing wrist flexion?
88. A PTA is assessing radial deviation range of motion at the wrist. The correct position of the goniometer should be as follows: the proximal arm aligned with the forearm and the distal arm aligned with the third metacarpal. What should be used as the axis point?
89. The PTA is assessing a patient’s strength in the right shoulder. The patient has 0 degrees of active shoulder abduction in the standing position. In the supine position, the patient has 42 degrees of active shoulder abduction and 175 degrees of pain-free passive shoulder abduction. What is the correct manual muscle testing grade for the patient’s shoulder abduction?
90. Which of the following statements best describes lower extremity positioning in standing during the first 2 years of life of a child with no dysfunction?
a. Femoral anteversion, femoral external rotation, foot pronation
b. Femoral anteversion, femoral internal rotation, foot supination
c. Femoral retroversion, femoral external rotation, foot pronation
d. Femoral retroversion, femoral internal rotation, foot supination
91. What are signs and symptoms of an acute temporomandibular joint (TMJ) anterior displaced disk without reduction?
a. Clicking and pain in the TMJ joint
b. Absence of clicking and opening limited to 26 to 30 mm, lateral movements limited to contralateral side, deflection to same side with protrusion
c. Crepitation and limitation to 26 mm
d. Absence of clicking and opening limited to 26 to 30 mm, lateral movements limited to ipsilateral side, deflection to same side with protrusion
92. A PTA is performing manual muscle testing (MMT) of a patient with right lateral hip pain. The standing alignment reveals anterior pelvic tilt and associated hip flexion. During the MMT of the right posterior gluteus medius, which substitution is likely to occur?
a. Increase in hip flexion angle to substitute with the tensor fascia latae
b. Increase in lateral rotation to substitute with the tensor fascia latae
c. Forward rotation of the pelvis to substitute with the gluteus minimus
93. A cause of a noncapsular pattern might be which of the following?
94. A PTA is assessing passive range of motion in a patient reporting hip pain. When measuring with a goniometer, the patient had 0 to 60 degrees of passive hip internal rotation. This finding is considered which of the following?
95. The skin and its mucosal barriers are an example of what type of immunity?
96. Inflamed lymph nodes as a result of infection are LEAST likely to be palpated in which of the following areas?
97. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for pressure ulcer formation?
98. Tissue anoxia and resulting cell death can occur if the external pressure is greater than the capillary closing pressure. Which of the following statements is TRUE about capillary closing pressure?
a. Capillary closing pressure is defined as the pressure that occludes the smallest blood vessels.
b. The average capillary closing pressure in a healthy adult is greater than 40 mm Hg.
c. The closing capillary pressure adjusts and increases with the amount of pressure exerted on the tissue.
99. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which moisture contributes to the formation of pressure ulcers?
a. Changing the pH of the skin
b. Increasing bacterial load of an existing skin lesion
c. Increasing tissue destruction from shear and friction
100. Thick necrotic drainage often accompanied by a foul odor is termed which of the following?
101. The fan-shaped subcutaneous wound extension that is the result of destruction of the connective tissue between the dermis and subcutaneous tissue is termed which of the following?
102. In which stage of healing does the body produce new capillaries?
103. What structure in the cranium has the closest contact with the brain?
104. What cranial nerve is involved with tic douloureux?
105. After a severe concussion, a football player has difficulty with visual-spatial processing. Where did this lesion most likely occur?
106. What is the lowest possible score for a patient on the Glasgow Coma Scale?
107. Damage to what structure in the brain would most likely lead to ataxic breathing?
108. What excessive position is responsible for most spinal cord injuries?
109. Lower motor neuron involvement occurs with trauma to several sites. Damage to which of the following sites will NOT produce lower motor neuron symptoms?
110. Which test is considered the gold standard for carpal tunnel syndrome?
111. Disruption of which cranial nerve will result in Bell’s palsy?
112. Which of the following body systems is NOT directly involved in balance?
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